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galina1969 [7]
3 years ago
13

SOMEONE PLS HELP ME FIND THE AREA OF THIS COMPOSITE FIGURE. ILL GIVE BRAINLIEST! also explain pls!

Mathematics
1 answer:
m_a_m_a [10]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

68 in.

Step-by-step explanation:

The rectangle is 60in., and you can find the area of a triangle by multiplying the height and the width, then dividing it by 2. The height is four, and the width is 4, 4x4 is 16, divided by 2 is 8.

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Let Y1 and Y2 denote the proportion of time during which employees I and II actually performed their assigned tasks during a wor
Lemur [1.5K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

From the information given:

The joint density of y_1  and  y_2 is given by:

f_{(y_1,y_2)}  \left \{ {{y_1+y_2, \ \  0\  \le \ y_1  \ \le 1 , \  \ 0  \ \ \le y_2  \ \ \le 1} \atop {0,   \ \ \ elsewhere \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \  \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ } \right.

a)To find the marginal density of y_1.

f_{y_1} (y_1) = \int \limits ^{\infty}_{-\infty} f_{y_1,y_2} (y_1 >y_2) \ dy_2

=\int \limits ^{1}_{0}(y_1+y_2)\ dy_2

=\int \limits ^{1}_{0} \ \  y_1dy_2+ \int \limits ^{1}_{0} \ y_2 dy_2

= y_1 \ \int \limits ^{1}_{0}  dy_2+ \int \limits ^{1}_{0} \ y_2 dy_2

= y_1[y_2]^1_0 + \bigg [ \dfrac{y_2^2}{2}\bigg]^1_0

= y_1 [1] + [\dfrac{1}{2}]

= y_1 + \dfrac{1}{2}

i.e.

f_{(y_1}(y_1)}=  \left \{ {{y_1+\dfrac{1}{2}, \ \  0\ \  \le \ y_1  \ \le , \  1} \atop {0,   \ \ \ elsewhere \ \\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ } \right.

The marginal density of y_2 is:

f_{y_1} (y_2) = \int \limits ^{\infty}_{-\infty} fy_1y_1(y_1-y_2) dy_1

= \int \limits ^1_0 \ y_1 dy_1 + y_2 \int \limits ^1_0 dy_1

=\bigg[ \dfrac{y_1^2}{2} \bigg]^1_0 + y_2 [y_1]^1_0

= [ \dfrac{1}{2}] + y_2 [1]

= y_2 + \dfrac{1}{2}

i.e.

f_{(y_1}(y_2)}=  \left \{ {{y_2+\dfrac{1}{2}, \ \  0\ \  \le \ y_1  \ \le , \  1} \atop {0,   \ \ \ elsewhere \ \\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ } \right.

b)

P\bigg[y_1 \ge \dfrac{1}{2}\bigg |y_2 \ge \dfrac{1}{2} \bigg] = \dfrac{P\bigg [y_1 \ge \dfrac{1}{2} . y_2 \ge\dfrac{1}{2} \bigg]}{P\bigg[ y_2 \ge \dfrac{1}{2}\bigg]}

= \dfrac{\int \limits ^1_{\frac{1}{2}} \int \limits ^1_{\frac{1}{2}} f_{y_1,y_1(y_1-y_2) dy_1dy_2}}{\int \limits ^1_{\frac{1}{2}} fy_1 (y_2) \ dy_2}

= \dfrac{\int \limits ^1_{\frac{1}{2}} \int \limits ^1_{\frac{1}{2}} (y_1+y_2) \ dy_1 dy_2}{\int \limits ^1_{\frac{1}{2}} (y_2 + \dfrac{1}{2}) \ dy_2}

= \dfrac{\dfrac{3}{8}}{\dfrac{5}{8}}

= \dfrac{3}{8}}\times {\dfrac{8}{5}}

= \dfrac{3}{5}}

= 0.6

(c) The required probability is:

P(y_2 \ge 0.75 \ y_1 = 0.50) = \dfrac{P(y_2 \ge 0.75 . y_1 =0.50)}{P(y_1 = 0.50)}

= \dfrac{\int \limits ^1_{0.75}  (y_2 +0.50) \ dy_2}{(0.50 + \dfrac{1}{2})}

= \dfrac{0.34375}{1}

= 0.34375

7 0
3 years ago
If the circumference of each tire on a vehicle is approximately 88​ in., how many miles will the vehicle travel when the tires m
-BARSIC- [3]

Answer:

31.94 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that

The circumference of a tire represents the distance traveled by the vehicle in one revolution

so

by proportion

Find out the distance traveled by the vehicle in 23,000 revolutions

\frac{88}{1}\ \frac{in}{rev}=\frac{x}{23,000}\ \frac{in}{rev}\\\\x=88(23,000)\\\\x=2,024,000\ in

Convert inches to miles

Remember that

1\ mile=63,360\ inches

To convert inches to miles divided by 63,360

therefore

2,024,000\ in=2,024,000/63,360=31.94\ miles

7 0
4 years ago
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