Answer:
D. 
Step-by-step explanation:
Let be ![y = \Sigma_{i = 0}^{4} \left[5\cdot \left(\frac{1}{3} \right)^{i}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=y%20%3D%20%5CSigma_%7Bi%20%3D%200%7D%5E%7B4%7D%20%5Cleft%5B5%5Ccdot%20%5Cleft%28%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B3%7D%20%5Cright%29%5E%7Bi%7D%5Cright%5D)
. To find the equivalent expression we must use the following property:
![y = c\cdot \Sigma_{i = 0}^{n} p(x) = \Sigma_{i=0}^{n} [c\cdot p(x)]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=y%20%3D%20c%5Ccdot%20%5CSigma_%7Bi%20%3D%200%7D%5E%7Bn%7D%20p%28x%29%20%3D%20%5CSigma_%7Bi%3D0%7D%5E%7Bn%7D%20%5Bc%5Ccdot%20p%28x%29%5D)
(1)
Based on this fact, we find the following equivalence:
Hence, the correct answer is D.
Answer: what are you trying to ask here?
Step-by-step explanation:
An imaginary number is a complex number that can be written as a real number multiplied by the imaginary unit i, which is defined by it's property i² = −1. The square of an imaginary number bi is −b². For example, 5i is an imaginary number, and it's square is −25.
