The answer in the given statement above is false because
Gross Domestic Product has the capability of providing measurement when it
comes to the economy’s income. It measures the goods that are produced and the
services that are given in the course of one year where in it is concluded that
it has the capability of measuring the economy’s income.
Answer:
Explanation:
The adjusting entry to record the credit losses is shown below:
Bad debt expense A/c Dr $45,000
To Allowance for doubtful debts $45,000
(Being bad debt is recorded)
The credit loss computation is shown below:
= Credit sales × estimated percentage
= $900,000 × 5%
= $45,000
For recording this transaction, we debited the expense account and credited the contra asset account.
The answer to the given question above would be Profit Margin. On the given scenario above, since they will be offering different kinds of services at once, what they should pay attention to is the profit margin or the net margin. Profit margin serves as the measurement of profitability. This is expressed in percentage and shows how much the return sales are that are generated by the company based on the amount they have initially invested.
It is True, based on asset intensity, that for every $100 increase in sales, Chemical manufacturer DuPont would need about $100 in additional assets.
<h3>What is asset intensity?</h3>
The asset or capital intensity is a measure of the amount of assets needed to produce some dollars of sales revenue.
The asset intensity ratio is obtained by dividing the total assets by sales.
Thus, it is True, based on asset intensity, that for every $100 increase in sales, Chemical manufacturer DuPont would need about $100 in additional assets.
Learn more about the capital intensity ratio at brainly.com/question/13887805
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