Answer:
4in : 1ft
Step-by-step explanation:
We start with:
3/4 in = 3/16 ft
This means that the length of 3/4 inches is the same as the length of 3/16 feet.
To reduce this, we can start by dividing by 3 in both sides of the equation:
(3/4)/3 in = (3/16)/3 ft
1/4 in = 1/16 ft
Now we can multiply both sides by 16:
16/4 in = 16/16ft
4 in = 1ft
now we reduced the ratio to:
4in : 1ft
6y- 12x =24
6y= 24+12x
y=4+2x
The answer is (a). hopefully this answers your question
Here is your answer
<u>EXPLANA</u><u>TION</u>
Here, we multiply <em><u>numerator</u></em> of one fraction to the <em><u>numerator</u></em> of the other fraction and similarly the <em><u>denominators</u></em> of both fractions are multiplied.
HOPE IT IS USEFUL
Hey there! I'm happy to help!
The question tells us that m∠JKL is 54. We see from the diagram that this is the combination of the angles m∠JKM and m∠MKL. So, we can combine their values, which are equal to 54 to find x.
13x+1+5x+4=54
We combine like terms
18x+5=54
We subtract 5 from both sides.
18x=49
We divide both sides by 18.
x=2.7222222....
Now, we want to find the measure of m∠MKL. We plug our x value into the value of this angle and evaluate.
5(2.722....)+4=17.61111....... or 17 11/18.
Have a wonderful day and keep on learning! :D
