So combine all the x and the Y on the left side and the coefficients on the right and then multiply the variable (x or Y) by the number needed for both. and then whichever variable you have left (x or y) will equal the coefficient and then divide by the coefficient
Answer:
2nd one: AB = 6
Step-by-step explanation:
Because PQ is 4 (Pythagorean triples), you can prove that triangle PBQ is congruent to PAQ by HL. You can then say AQ is equal to 3 becasue of CPCTC. AQ+QB=AB, or 3+3=6. AB=6
Answer:
ft76d956
Step-by-step explanation:
<em>The </em><em>value</em><em> </em><em>of</em><em> </em><em>u</em><em> </em><em>is</em><em> </em><em>-</em><em>3</em><em>4</em><em>3</em>
<em>pl</em><em>ease</em><em> see</em><em> the</em><em> attached</em><em> picture</em><em> for</em><em> full</em><em> solution</em>
<em>Hope</em><em> </em><em>it</em><em> helps</em>
<em>Good</em><em> </em><em>luck</em><em> on</em><em> your</em><em> assignment</em>
Answer:
21.77% probability that the antenna will be struck exactly once during this time period.
Step-by-step explanation:
In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

In which
x is the number of sucesses
e = 2.71828 is the Euler number
is the mean in the given interval.
In this question:

Find the probability that the antenna will be struck exactly once during this time period.
This is P(X = 1).


21.77% probability that the antenna will be struck exactly once during this time period.