Answer:
$36.80
Step-by-step explanation:
15% of 32 = 0.15x32 = $4.80
32+4.80 because it was a tip being added to the bill
=36.80
Answer:
a≤39/5
Step-by-steep explanation:
60a+64≥80a−92
Step 1: Subtract 80a from both sides.
60a+64≥80a−92
-80a -80a
−20a+64≥−92
Step 2: Subtract 64 from both sides.
−20a+64≥−92
-64 -64
−20a≥−156
Step 3: Divide both sides by -20.
−20a≥−156
a≤39/5
Answer:
(12, 487)
Step-by-step explanation:
y = 3.7x + 442 ----› Eqn. 1
y = 14.4x + 312 ----› Eqn. 2
Substitute y = (3.7x + 442) into eqn. 2.
y = 14.4x + 312 ----› Eqn. 2
3.7x + 442 = 14.4x + 312
Collect like terms
3.7x - 14.4x = -442 + 312
-10.7x = -130
Divide both sides by -10.7
x = 12.1495327
Substitute x = 12.1495327 into eqn. 1.
y = 3.7x + 442 ----› Eqn. 1
y = 3.7(12.1495327) + 442
y = 486.953271
The solution to the system is rounded to the nearest integer:
(12, 487)
Beta= 1.3
Debt to equity ratio= 0.4
Market rate of return= 11.6%
= 11.6/100
= 0.116
Tax rate= 32%
= 32/100
= 0.32
Risk free rate= 3.3%
= 3.3/100
= 0.033
Pretax cost of debt= 7.2%
= 7.2/100
= 0.072
The firm's WACC can be calacluated as follows
RS= 0.033+1.3(0.116-0.033)
= 0.033+1.3(0.083)
= 0.033+0.1079
= 0.1409
WACC= (1/1.4)(0.1409)+(2/1.4) (0.072)(1-0.32)
= (0.7142)(0.1409) + (1.4285)(0.072)(0.68)
= 0.1006+0.0699
= 0.1705(100)
= 17.05%
Hence the firm's WACC is 17.05%
