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damaskus [11]
3 years ago
9

An analyst gathers the following information about Meyer, Inc.: Meyer has 1,000 shares of 8% cumulative preferred stock outstand

ing, with a par value of $100 and liquidation value of $110. Meyer has 20,000 shares of common stock outstanding, with a par value of $20. Meyer had retained earnings at the beginning of the year of $5,000,000. Net income for the year was $70,000. This year, for the first time in its history, Meyer paid no dividends on preferred or common stock. a. Calculate the total book value of Meyer's common stock. b. What is the book value per share of Meyer's common stock
Business
1 answer:
TiliK225 [7]3 years ago
5 0

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below

a. Total book value is

= Equity par value + retained earnings + net income

= 20,000 shares × $20 + $5,000,000 + $70,000

= $5,470,000

b. The book value per share is

= Equity book value ÷ number of shares

= $5,470,000 ÷ 20,000shares

= $273.50

Hence, the total book value and book value per share is $5,470,000 and $273.50 respectively

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A resource-based strategy Multiple choice question. focuses on efficient execution of both primary and supporting components of
ki77a [65]

Answer:

can be achieved by exploiting resources that are competitively valuable, rare, and hard to imitate by rivals

Explanation:

A resource-based strategy is a form of the technique used by business managers to efficiently utilized the existing and valuable resources of the firm. These resources would be difficult to come by for the competitors such that it is hard for competitors to replicate. Thereby leading a sustainable or long term competitive advantage to the firm

Hence, in this case, the correct answer is A resource-based strategy "can be achieved by exploiting resources that are competitively valuable, rare, and hard to imitate by rivals."

5 0
2 years ago
Investment X offers to pay you $6,900 per year for 9 years, whereas Investment Y offers to pay you $9,300 per year for 5 years.
Oliga [24]

Answer:

$44,955.10

$38,131.84

Explanation:

Present value is the sum of discounted cash flows

Present value can be calculated using a financial calculator

Investment X

Cash flow each year from year 1 to 9 = $6900

I = 7%

PV = $44,955.10

Investment Y

Cash flow each year from year 1 to 5 = $9300

I = 7%

PV = $38,131.84

To find the PV using a financial calculator:

1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.

2. after inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.  

3. Press compute  

7 0
3 years ago
Mystic Laboratories reported total assets of $11,200,000 and noncurrent assets of $1,480,000. The company also reported a curren
Anastasy [175]

Answer:

$6,480,000

Explanation:

The computation of the amount of the current liabilities is shown below:

Total assets of $11,200,000

Less: Noncurrent assets $1,480,000

Current Assets = $9,720,000

Now as we know that

Current ratio  = Current Assets ÷ Current Liabilities

Current Liabilites is

= $9,720,000 ÷ 1.5

= $6,480,000

hence, the current liabilities is $6,480,000

3 0
3 years ago
Calculating the Predetermined Overhead Rate, Applying Overhead to Production, Reconciling Overhead at the End of the Year, Adjus
Usimov [2.4K]

Answer:

Instructions are listed below

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Estimated:

Overhead $160,000

Direct labor hours 80,000

Han uses normal costing and applies overhead based on direct labor hours.

For January, direct labor hours were 8,150.

By the end of the year, Han showed the following actual amounts:

Overhead $166,000

Direct labor hours 79,600

Assume that the unadjusted Cost of Goods Sold for Han was $176,000.

1) Predetermined overhead rate= total estimated overhead for the period/ total amount of allocation base

Predetermined overhead rate=160000/80000= $2 per hour

2) Applied overhead (January)= Predetermined overhead rate*actual hours= 2*8150= $16,300

3) Applied overhead for the year= 2*79600= $159,200

Over/under applied= actual overhead - applied overhead= 166000 - 159200= 6800 underapplied

4) COGS= 176000

Underapplied overhead= 6800

COGS adjusted= $182,800

3 0
3 years ago
Match the terms below with the following definition:
GalinKa [24]

Answer:

1. B

2. A

3. D

4. C

Explanation:

1. Activity variance

B) the difference between a revenue or cost item in the flexible budget and the same item in the planning budget.

The activity variance is as a result of difference between the actual level of activity in the flexible budget to the assumed level of activity in the planning budget.

2. Planning budget

A) a budget created at the beginning of the budgeting period that is valid only for the planned level of activity.

Planning budget is a process of evaluating earnings and expenses and project their monetary intakes and outtakes for the future made by  an individual or company.

3. Flexible Budget

D) a report showing estimates of what revenues and costs should have been, given the actual level of activity for the period.

Flexible budget adjusts with changes in volume and activity

4. Spending variance

C) the difference between the actual amount of the cost and how much the cost should have been, given the actual level of activity

This is unfavorable if the actual cost is greater than what the cost should have been and favorable if the actual cost is less than what the cost should have been.

6 0
3 years ago
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