I thought this right but sorry if it is wrong
first make the 6% in amount by 6×10,000÷100=3600
then, the convert 4 year into month by (4×12)=48month. after that divide 48months by 4 month.i.e.48÷4=12.at last multiply 12 by 3600.i.e. 12×3600=43200
The sum of probability for an event happening and not happening must be equal to 1 because there is a 100% chance that one or the other will occur.
So the probability on not drawing a quarter:
P(!Q)=1-4/5
P(!Q)=5/5-4/5
P(!Q)=1/5
As a percentage:
p/100=1/5
p=100/5
p=20%
The easiest way is to graph it based upon the slope (m) and y-intercept (b), in the standard slope-intercept form: y = m (x) + b.
The line above intercepts the y-axis at y = -2, which is b. The slope (m) = rise/run = (y2-y1)/(x2-x1 ); so for the point (-4, 2) to (-6, 4) is:
(4-2)/(-6--4) = 2/(-6+4) = 2/-2 = -1.
So one form of the equation would be:
y = -1x - 2
Now the other form of an equation is point-slope: y-k = m (x-h), where the point is at (h, k)
and if we pick -5 for x (bc 5 it listed in 3 of the answers), the y at x=-5 looks like around +3
so we get: y-k = -1 (x--5)...
y-3 = -(x+5)... therefore D) is the correct answer:
Answer:
{0.16807, 0.36015, 0.3087, 0.1323, 0.02835, 0.00243}
Step-by-step explanation:
The expansion of (p+q)^n for n = 5 is ...
(p+q)^5 = p^5 +5·p^4·q +10·p^3·q^2 +10·p^2·q^3 +5·p·q^4 +q^5
When the probability p=0.3 and q = 1-p = 0.7 the terms of this series correspond to the probabilities of 5, 4, 3, 2, 1, and 0 favorable outcomes out of 5 trials.
For example, p^5 = 0.3^5 = 0.00243 is the probability of 5 favorable outcomes in 5 trials where the probability of each favorable outcome is 0.3.
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The attachment shows the calculation of these numbers using a graphing calculator. It lists them in reverse order of the expansion of (p+q)^5 shown above, so that they are the probabilities of 0–5 favorable outcomes in the order 0–5.
Answer:
-11, -7, -3, -1, 0, 5, 8
Step-by-step explanation:
