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GarryVolchara [31]
3 years ago
6

In the trade-off theory, debt levels chosen to balance interest tax shield against the costs of financial distress imply:_______

_
a. an interior optimum (firm value maximizing) debt ratio
b. that investors are irrational, since they require lower returns the hgher the risk
c. that a firm would use little to no debt
d. that a firm would borrow as much as possible
Business
1 answer:
pychu [463]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a) an interior optimum (firm value maximizing) debt ratio

Explanation:

Trade off Theory is about capital structure of an economic unit. It mentions about the benefit of debt - ie tax saving, as interest on debt is tax deductible; & cost of debt - bankruptcy & insolvency risk, due to fix interest cost.

The theory depicts the debt level, which is best to - balance interest tax shield against the costs of financial distress imply, which implies that it seeks a balance between benefit & cost of debt.

So, the theory finds the best interior optimum (firm value maximising) debt equity ratio.

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Adolescent group members may share information too soon or even reveal inappropriate information about themselves, for which of
dusya [7]

Answer:

Question: Adolescent group members may share information too soon or even reveal inappropriate information about themselves, for which of the following purposes?

Answer: To impress other members

Explanation:

There are various reasons why it can be said that adolescent/teen may share too much information about themselves: it can be as a result of i) peer pressure; ii) need to outshine other members of the group and gain a certain level of reputation within the group: iii) it may also be just for fun.

3 0
3 years ago
________ are transacted between international businesses and their banks, between banks, and between governments when it is desi
Oliga [24]

Answer: Swaps

Explanation:

A foreign exchange swap is a written agreement between two parties with different currencies to exchange such currencies at a specific period of time. In a swap deal, one party to the agreement gives out currency to the other party while also collecting collecting currency from such party. The written agreement usually contains such details like the interest on the amount of exchange, as well as the loan value of one currency against the other.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The Allowance for Bad Debts account has a debit balance of $ 9 comma 000$9,000 before the adjusting entry for bad debts expense.
Yakvenalex [24]

Answer:

the amount of the adjustment in the Allowance for

Bad Debts​ account  $3.000

Explanation:

Initial Balance  

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 9.000

END Balance  

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts  $ 12.000

The adjustment entry in the accountig will be

Bad debt expense  $ 3.000  

Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts   $ 3.000

3 0
3 years ago
Investors in closed-end funds who wish to liquidate their positions must a.sell their shares to other investors. b.sell their sh
Molodets [167]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": sell their shares to other investors.

Explanation:

Closed-end funds are pools of assets that at the beginning raise a fixed amount of income thanks to an <em>Initial Public Offering</em> (IPO) and later on trades in a public stock exchange. Close-end funds are said to provide higher returns than open-end funds. <em>When investors have a position with a closed-end fund, to exit it the number of shares held must be sold to another investor.</em>

6 0
3 years ago
The long-term liability section of Rainbow Digital Corporation’s balance sheet as of December 31, 2020, included 10% bonds havin
Anon25 [30]

Answer:

Loss on early extinguishment = 1,008,357.64

Explanation:

Data:

T = Interest rate = 10% = 0.10

FA = Face amount = $1,000,000

RD = Remaining Discount = $139,294

Y = Yield rate = 12% = 0.12

RT = Retirement Time = 6/12 = 0.5

BA = Bonds at = 101% = 1.01

EE = Gain (loss) on early extinguishment = ?

IE = Interest Expense = ?

D = Discount on bond payable = ?

Calculations:

IE = Y * (FA - RD) * RT

IE = 0.12 * ($1,000,000 - $139,294) * 0.5 = 0.12 *  $860,706 * 0.5 = $51,642.36

D = FA - [IE - (T * FA * RT)]

D = $1,000,000 - [$51,642.36 - (0.10 * $1,000,000 * 0.5)] = $1,000,000 - [$51,642.36 - $50,000] = $1,000,000 - $1,642.36 = $998,357.64

EE = FA - [D + (FA * BA)]

EE = $1,000,000 - [$998,357.64 + ($1,000,000 * 1.01)] = $1,000,000 - [$998,357.64 + $1,010,000] = $1,000,000 - 2,008,357.64 = -1,008,357.64

EE = -1,008,357.64 (Loss)

4 0
3 years ago
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