Answer:C. cash flow from operations may increase
Explanation:
A factoring system is one in which a firm sell his right to receive payments on it's receivable to a firm referred to as the factor as a discount in which the amount of discount represents the factor fees for taking up the risk.
The factor may be with or without recourse to the firm selling the receivable.
It's mostly entered into to reduce payment defaults and increase inflow of cash for operations.
The factor company does not need to be a consolidated company,it usually reduce the receivable and does not require a change in accounting principles.
Budgeting period is an allocation of time to plan for your money and how or where it's gonna be used. There are two types of budgeting period: Short term and Long term.
Short-term Budgeting period
This budgeting period covers from 6 months to a year, depending on the nature of the business. For seasonal businesses, it should cover at least one seasonal cycle. For wholesale and retail businesses, 6 month is enough.
Long-term Budgeting Period
This covers more than a year of operating. It focuses on the futuristic performance of a business or company. Factors used are market trends, economic growth, inflation rates and industrial production. These factors help foresee profit or problems that may arise. Consequently, this will also help you in your present decisions.
Answer: Highlight the headings in bold and choose your preferred colour.
Explanation:
For Alicia To add a bold effect on the word, she has to highlight the word she wants to work with and increase the size to your desired colour, this is also applicable to choosing preferred colour
Answer:
She will have $16,772.59 more in the second investment.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Recently she received an inheritance of $54,000 from her grandmother's estate. She plans to use the money for the down payment on a home in ten years when she finishes her education.
We need to use the following formula:
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
First savings account:
FV= 54,000*(1+0.04)^10= $79,933.19
Second investment:
FV= 54,000*(1+0.06)^10= $96,705.78
She will have (96,705.78 - 79,933.19) $16,772.59 more in the second investment.
Answer:
Option D is the correct answer,$ 88,338.48
Explanation:
The liability reported in the balance sheet can be computed by using the pv formula in excel which is stated thus:
=-pv(rate,nper,pmt,fv)
rate is the incremental borrowing rate of 11% per year
nper is the number of payments required to settle the obligation which is 10
pmt is the amount of yearly payment in order to fully settle the debt owed which is $15,000 per year
fv is the future worth of total payments which is not unknown,hence taken as zero
=-pv(11%,10,15000,0)=$ 88,338.48
The correct answer is $ 88,338.48