Answer:
January 1, 2020
Bonds Payable 1600000 Dr
Loss on Redemption of bonds 36800 Cr
Discount on Bonds Payable 4800 Cr
Cash 1632000 Cr
Explanation:
The redemption of bonds before the maturity usually requires a payment for redemption which is a certain percentage of its face value. It is usually higher than the face value. The above bonds are redeemed at 102 which means at 102% of the face value of the bonds. Thus, the cash paid to redeem the bonds is,
Cash = 1600000 * 102% = 1632000
The bonds have a carrying value, which is the face value less discount or add premium, of,
Carrying value = 1600000 - 4800 = $1595200
If they are redeemed for an amount in excess of the carrying value, they are redeemed at a loss.
The loss on redemption is,
Loss = 1595200 - 1632000 = $36800
False.
This is a periodic tenancy because Tom, as the tenant, may rent the apartment for successive periods under his lease, despite being "month-to-month." A tenancy at will, however, allows either the landlord or the tenant to terminate the arrangement at any time because there is more flexibility in the arrangement.
One key difference is the issue of the tenant's notice to vacate the apartment. Under periodic tenancy, the law typically requires the tenant to give at least one period (here, one month) notice to the landlord of the tenant's wish to leave the property. No such notice requirement is typically found within a tenancy at will.
This expanding panic and rising flood of withdrawals is called Bank Run.
<u>Explanation: </u>
Bank run means many customers of the bank withdraw their deposits due to the fear that the bank might become insolvent. When many customers withdraw their funds then the bank might not be able to meet the withdrawals with the available funds.
This further increases the risk of the bank to default when all the customers withdraw their deposits. This is because the banks hold only little amount as cash in hand while the rest of the bank's wealth is invested in long term assets.
Answer:
What I would do is make sure it is a good quality item and see if it is worth my money after that I would go to the cashier and buy my product.
Explanation:
Answer:
B. 20,000
Explanation:
Standard Variable overhead rate = $6 per units / 2 direct labour hour
Standard Variable overhead rate = $3 per hour
Variable Overhead Spending Variance = Actual hours worked * (Actual overhead rate - Standard overhead rate)
Variable overhead spending variance = 160,000 * (3.125 -3)
Variable overhead spending variance = 160000*0.875
Variable overhead spending variance = 20,000
