Answer:
3- 8 -2
Step-by-step explanation:
HOPE THIS HELPS
Answer:
1000
Step-by-step explanation:
100 times 10 = 1000
Answer:
<u>brainliest plzzzzzzzz</u>
120
Step-by-step explanation:
LCM=1320
(GDC) HCF=12
Another no.=132
let second no. be =A
According to question
First no.×Second no.=HCF×LCM
132×A=12×1320
132×A=15840
A=15840/132
A=120
Other no. is 120
The equation would be 40+15p=70+5p. You would subtract 5p from each side (15-5) and (5-5) and you'll have 40+10p=70. You would then subtract 40 from each side (70-40) and (40-40) to have 10p=30. You would divide by both of the sides by 10, you would end up with p=3. P is price training. The reason you divide and subtract on both sides is because you want the months to be on one side and the price training on the other side.
