Answer:
Fixed Overheads Spending Variance = $5,000 Unfavorable(U).
Fixed Overheads Spending Variance = $20,000 Favorable (F).
Explanation:
Fixed Overheads Spending Variance = Actual Fixed Overheads - Budgeted Fixed Overheads
= $305,000 - $300,000
= $5,000 Unfavorable(U).
Fixed Overheads Spending Variance = Fixed Overheads at Actual Production - Budgeted Fixed Overheads
= ($5.00 × 64,000) - $300,000
= $320,000 - $300,000
= $20,000 Favorable (F)
<span>C. By date with the latest date in the front of the folder </span>
Answer:
If you considered that outstanding shares are equal that total shares, then: market capitalization is $1.085 billions; market value added is $477.5 millions and the market-ti-book ratio is 1.78.
Explanation:
To get these numbers we calculate as follow: market capitalization = number of shares multiply by the price per share (75$ x 14.5 million); marked value added = market capitalization - (total assets - liabilities) [1.085 Bn - (1 Bn - 390 m)] ; and market-to-book ratio = market capitalization / book value (1.085bn/610m)
Answer:
The Bad Debt expense will be in year 1;
Explanation:
The Bad Debt Expense $45,000*1%=$450
The journal entry will be
Bad Debt Expense Dr.$450
Account Receivable Cr.$450
Other things remaining constant, increased US imports will <u>D. Tend to cause the </u><u>dollar</u><u> to depreciate</u> because the world supply of dollars will rise.
<h3>What is the implication of increased United States imports with other factors constant?</h3>
With increased imports by the United States, and if all other factors are held constant, the supply of dollars will increase.
When the supply of dollars increases without a corresponding increase in demand, the dollar will depreciate or lose its value relatively.
Thus, if other things remain constant, increased US imports will <u>D. Tend to cause the </u><u>dollar</u><u> to depreciate</u> because the world supply of dollars will rise.
Learn more about exchange rates at brainly.com/question/2202418
