Answer:
$6400
Explanation:
Working capital is the net of current asset and current liabilities. it is a financial measure that gives insight into how liquid a company is considering that it shows whether or not the current assets can be used to settle the current obligations or liabilities of the company adequately.
The change in property, plant, and equipment of $48,000 is not an element of working capital, Hence change in working capital
= $8700 - $2300
= $6400
Answer:
Fixed overhead application rate
= <u>Budgeted fixed overhead</u>
Budgeted direct labour hours
= <u>$114,000</u>
60,000 hrs
= $1.90 per direct labour hour
Amount of overhead applied to job X387: $
Variable overhead $4.90 x 170 hours = 833
Fixed overhead $1.90 x 170 hours = 323
1,156
Explanation:
In this case, there is need to calculate the fixed overhead application rate based on direct labour hours by dividing the the budgeted fixed overhead by budgeted direct labour hours. Then, we will calculate the overhead applied to Job X387 by multiplying the fixed and variable application rate by actual direct labour hours of 170 hours.
Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
When supply is perfectly inelastic, the supply curve is vertical as shown in the attached plot. Thus, the tax that shifts the supply curve upward would have no effect on the equilibrium quantity or price paid by consumers. Since equilibrium quantity or price paid by consumer don't change there's no burden on them. However, no team's owners would receive a lower after tax price and thus bearing the entire tax burden.
Answer:
d. Choose Option B because it has a higher NPV
Explanation:
The computation is shown below:
For Option A:
Investment = $10 million
Present Value of cash flows = Cash flow ÷ Discounting rate
= $2 ÷ 10%
= $20 million
Now
NPV = $20 - $10
= $10 million
We know that
IRR is the rate at which the NPV will be zero
So, 2 ÷ r - 10 = 0
r = 20%
For Option B:
Investment = $50 million
Present Value of cash flows = $6.5 ÷ 10% = $65 million
NPV = $65 - $50 = $15 million
we know that
IRR is the rate at which the NPV will be zero
So, 6.5÷ r -50 = 0
r = 13%
Based on NPV, Option B should be selected as it contains higher NPV as compared to option A.
However, Based on IRR, Option A should be chosen as it contains higher IRR and a higher IRR represent a higher profit percentage