Answer:
$8,870
Explanation:
Calculation to determine the balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts after bad debt expense is recorded
Using this formula
Balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts=
(Credit sales* Percentage of Credit sales)+Allowance for doubtful accounts credit balance
Let plug in the formula
Balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts= ($458,000*1.5%)+$2,000
Balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts=$6,870+$2,000
Balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts=$8,870
Therefore the balance in the allowance for doubtful accounts after bad debt expense is recorded will be $8,870
<span>To calculate the average collection period: the average accounts receivable balance divided by average credit sales per day.
With $1,000,000 per year, that is $2739.73 per day.
The average accounts receivable is ($80,000 + $60,000) / 2 = $70,000
$70,000 / $2,739.73 = 25.6 days</span>
Answer:
b. In the first economy, the spending multiplier is greater than in the second economy. In the third economy, the spending multiplier is undefined
Explanation:
This can be easily understood by going through some calculations in a spending multiplier formula.
WORKINGS
The formula for Spending Multiplier = 
Spending Multiplier
Economy 1: Multiplier = 
= 2
Economy 2: Multiplier = 
= 1
Economy 3: Multiplier = 
= undefined
Note: MPS can be abbreviated as Marginal propensity to save
As we can see here economy 1 is 50% greater than economy 2 and economy 3 is undefined because they spend whole dollar they earn additionally.
On behalf of the above calculations, option B is a perfect match!
Answer:
No it wont have enough money to build a warehouse in two years.
Explanation:
Firstly we are given that the warehouse is $1 million so the company needs to save this amount of money in two years time.
We know that the company has invested $500000 to date therefore we need to calculate if this $50000 per quarter investment will cover the the other portion for $500000 to meet the warehouse cost of $1 million so we will use the future value annuity formula to calculate this which is :
Fv = C[((1+i)^n -1)/i]
where Fv will be the future value after two years of the $50000 investment
C is the periodic payment of $50000
i is the interest rate per period which is 6% per quarter
n is the number of periods the payment is done here it is 4 x 2years= 8 periods / investments of $50000 that will be done.
thereafter we substitute on the above formula:
Fv = 50000[((1+6%)^8 - 1)/6%]
Fv = $494873.40
then we combine this amount to $500000 to see if it reaches $1 million
$494873.40+ $500000 = $994873.40 which is close to the warehouse cost of $1 million but it does not reach it so the company wont have enough money to purchase the warehouse.
Answer:
because they are able to create it at a lower price
Explanation:
