Answer:
<em>Thus, the original price of the pair of shoes was $100.</em>
Step-by-step explanation:
<u>Percentages</u>
After a 60% discount, the sale price is now valued at 100-60=40% of its original price.
If the sale price is $40, then the original price is calculated as
$40 / 40 * 100 = $100
Thus, the original price of the pair of shoes was $100.
Verify applying 60% discount:
$100 - 60*$100/100 = $40
Answer:
77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.
Step-by-step explanation:
For each item, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of an item being defective is independent of other items. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

In which
is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

And p is the probability of X happening.
The true proportion of defects is 0.15
This means that 
Sample of 6:
This means that 
What is the probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6?

In which




77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.
Answer:
m∠1 is calculated as 49°.
Step-by-step explanation:
Consider the angles are the interior angles of a triangle.
m∠A =91°
m∠B = 40°
m∠1 = ?
We know that the sum of interior angles of a triangle is 180°. So,
m∠A + m∠B + m∠1 = 180°
or, m∠1 = 180°- m∠A - m∠B
or, m∠1 = 180°- 91° - 40°
or, m∠1 = 49°
Hence, m∠1 = 49°.