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3 years ago

Vertical Angles and Linear Pairs

Mathematics

1 answer:

Ratling [72]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Two angles are vertical angles if their sides form two pairs of opposite rays. 5 and 6 are a linear pair. Two adjacent angles are a linear pair if the form a straight line. Linear Angle Pairs add up to 180°.

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How do you find the total sum of squared values?

tester [92]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

$\sum^{12}_{r=1} r^2 = \frac{12(12+1)(2*12+1)}{6}= A$

$\sum_{r=3}^{12}= \sum_{r=1}^{12} - (r_1+r_2)$

$r_1= 1^2$

$r_2= 2^2$

you do your math!!

7 0

3 years ago

Can i get some help i suck at this lol

blsea [12.9K]

That would be 8, its in the center so forget 9 or 7.

6 0

3 years ago

Please answer please

Mariulka [41]

Answer:

that's wrong

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

It is not possible to prove one pair of triangles congruent and then use their congruent corresponding parts to prove another pa

borishaifa [10]

Answer:

true

The wording does not quite mean anything,

but what I think was meant to ask is

"if we use some parts of two triangles to prove they are congruent,

can we then use that to prove that

a pair of corresponding parts not used before are congruent?"

The answer is

Yes, of course,

Corresponding Parts of Congruent Triangles are Congruent,

which teachers usually abbreviate as CPCTC.

For example, if we find that

side AB is congruent with side DE,

side BC is congruent with side EF, and

angle ABC is congruent with angle DEF,

we can prove that triangles ABC and DEF are congruent

by Side-Angle-Side (SAS) congruence.

We then, by CPCTC, can conclude that other pairs of corresponding parts are congruent:

side AB is congruent with side DE,

angle BCA is congruent with angle EFD, and

angle CAB is congruent with angle FDE.

It was possible (by CPCTC) to prove those last 3 congruence statements,

after proving the triangles congruent.

The expected answer is FALSE.

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

The actual distance between parks is 24 miles On a map these parks are 8 inches apart How many miles are equal to one inch on th

vaieri [72.5K]

Each inch in the map is equivalent to 8 miles.

Explanation:

There is a distance of 24 miles between two parks. This 24 miles is represented by an 8-inch gap in the map.

So 8 inches on that particular map = 24 miles in real life.

To find the distance that an inch on the map represents we must divide both sides of the above equation. Since we need to calculate how much distance 1 inch represents we divide both the sides by 8 so that 8 inches on the map changes into 1 inch.

$\frac{8}{8}$ inches on the map = $\frac{24}{8}$ miles between the two parks in real life,

1 inch on that particular map = 3 miles in real life.

So each inch on the given map is equal to 8 miles in real life.

5 0

3 years ago