Yes, it is a doubles fact because it has idk...
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
We want to find the Riemann sum for 
with n = 6, using left endpoints.
The Left Riemann Sum uses the left endpoints of a sub-interval:
where 
.
Step 1: Find 
We have that 
Therefore, 
Step 2: Divide the interval ![\left[0,\frac{3 \pi}{4}\right]](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cleft%5B0%2C%5Cfrac%7B3%20%5Cpi%7D%7B4%7D%5Cright%5D)
into n = 6 sub-intervals of length 
![a=\left[0, \frac{\pi}{8}\right], \left[\frac{\pi}{8}, \frac{\pi}{4}\right], \left[\frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{3 \pi}{8}\right], \left[\frac{3 \pi}{8}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right], \left[\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{5 \pi}{8}\right], \left[\frac{5 \pi}{8}, \frac{3 \pi}{4}\right]=b](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=a%3D%5Cleft%5B0%2C%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Cpi%7D%7B8%7D%5Cright%5D%2C%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cfrac%7B%5Cpi%7D%7B8%7D%2C%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Cpi%7D%7B4%7D%5Cright%5D%2C%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cfrac%7B%5Cpi%7D%7B4%7D%2C%20%5Cfrac%7B3%20%5Cpi%7D%7B8%7D%5Cright%5D%2C%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cfrac%7B3%20%5Cpi%7D%7B8%7D%2C%20%5Cfrac%7B%5Cpi%7D%7B2%7D%5Cright%5D%2C%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cfrac%7B%5Cpi%7D%7B2%7D%2C%20%5Cfrac%7B5%20%5Cpi%7D%7B8%7D%5Cright%5D%2C%20%5Cleft%5B%5Cfrac%7B5%20%5Cpi%7D%7B8%7D%2C%20%5Cfrac%7B3%20%5Cpi%7D%7B4%7D%5Cright%5D%3Db)
Step 3: Evaluate the function at the left endpoints
Step 4: Apply the Left Riemann Sum formula
36= 12.5% because 25%+62.5%= 87.5%
So 100%-87.5%=12.5%
87.5%-12.5%= 75%
36+36=72=25%
72+72+72+72= 288 = 100%
So the total number of pages in the magazine is 288
The diameter of the new rubber ball, to the nearest foot, must be D = 4.0 ft (in the case of the maximum cost).
<h3>
How to find the diameter of the ball?</h3>
Remember that for a sphere of diameter D, the surface area is:
A = 4*pi*(D/2)^2
In this case, the cost is $0.02 per square foot, and the company wants to expend (at maximum) $1 per ball, so first we need to solve:
$0.02*A = $1
A = $1/$0.02 = 50
So the surface of the ball must be 50 square feet.
Then we solve:
50ft^2 = 4*3.14*(D/2)^2
D = 2*√(50 ft^2/(4*3.14)) = 4.0 ft
If you want to learn more about spheres, you can read:
brainly.com/question/10171109
There is 1/5000 chance to win first place of $2000,
1/5000 chance to win second place of $500
3/5000 chance to win third place of $100
10/5000 chance to win the consolation prize of $25.
The ticket costs $1.
We multiply each probability by the amount, and subtract the ticket cost, to get the expected net earnings:
(1/5000)($2000) + (1/5000)($500) + (3/5000)($100) + (10/5000)($25) - $1 = $(-0.39).
This means that there is an expected loss of $0.39.
