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Alona [7]
2 years ago
8

Consider a European put option with strike price $30 and time to expiration 1 month. Assume the underlying stock price does not

pay a dividend and is currently $22. The risk free rate is 4%. What is a lower bound on the current value of the European put option
Business
1 answer:
dexar [7]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

$7.90

Explanation:

Calculation for lower bound on the current value of the European put option

Using this formula

Lower bound current value for European put option = Ke^–rt –So

Where,

Rf represent risk free rate 4%

K represent (Strike price) = $30

(t) represent Time = 1 month = 1/12 year

(So) represent Stock price = $22

Let plug in the formula

Lower bound current value for European put option = [30e^–0.04 x (1/12) ] – 22

Lower bound current value for European put option = $29.90 – $22

Lower bound current value for European put option = $7.90

Therefore the lower bound on the current value of the European put option will be $7.90

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8 0
3 years ago
Risks that are caused by the response to another risk are called secondary risks cumulative risks residual risks mitigated risks
Alecsey [184]

Risk that are caused by the response to the another risk is known as secondary risk. The first option is correct.

<h3>What are risk?</h3>

Risk refers to the possibility of the danger or harm. For example there is risk involved to change the career. The risk taken can lead to any outcome it can be positive or negative.

There are various kinds of risk one of those kind is the secondary risk in which the risk is taken as a result of the previous actions taken to deal with the situation.

Thus the correct option is Secondary risk.

Learn more about residual risk here:

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5 0
2 years ago
Hiring employees from outside the host country is an option many companies take when the local labor market does not offer enoug
Alinara [238K]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Some countries are known to have people with special skills and competences that may not be available to others.

Hence where a company sees that the skills and competence required may not be adequately available in  the local market, the company has the option of hiring employees from outside the country.

This may however be at a cost higher than the cost that would have been incurred if the company had hired the employee from the host country.

6 0
3 years ago
If the fair price for a 4-year annuity paying $100 per year is $334.57, what is the yield to maturity on a four year zero–coupon
Harrizon [31]

Answer:

YTM = 8%

Explanation:

$100 per year up to 4 years means, each year, the FV = $100.

We know, Zero coupon bond = [Fair Value ÷ (1 + YTM)^{n}]

As the 4-year annuity paying the different YTM in the previous three years, 4th year YTM will be -

Bond value = \frac{100}{1 + 0.6} + \frac{100}{(1+0.07)^2} + \frac{100}{(1+0.08)^3} + \frac{100}{(1+YTM{4})^4}

or, $334.57 = $94.3396 + $87.3439 + $79.3832 + \frac{100}{(1+YTM{4})^4 }

or, $334.57 - 261.0667 = \frac{100}{(1+YTM{4})^4 }

or,  (1+YTM{4})^4 = ($100 ÷ $73.50)

or, 1 + YTM = (1.3605)^{\frac{1}{4}}

or, YTM = 1.08 - 1

YTM = 0.08 or 8%

4 0
3 years ago
Johnson Company manufactures a variety of shoes, and has received a special one-time-only order directly from a wholesaler. John
tia_tia [17]

Answer:

Addition to operating income by sepcial order is $22,500

Explanation:

As the fixed cost is covered by other production. It is not been accounted for in this order. It is an avoidable cost regarding this project.

Special order 15,000 pairs

Sale receipt = 15,000 pairs x $7.50 = $112,500

Variable cost = 15,000 pairs x $5 = $75,000

Gross Income = $112,500 - $75,000 = $37,500

Variable Selling Expense = 15,000 pairs x $1

Variable Selling Expense = $15,000

Operating Income = Gross Income - Variabe selling price

Operating Income = $37,500 - $15,000

Operating Income = $22,500

3 0
3 years ago
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