The answer is b location of markets
Answer:
$18.60
Explanation:
Target cost:
= Sales revenue - Profit
= (No. of units sold × Selling price per unit) - (Investment require × desired return on investment)
= (20,000 × $21) - ($400,000 × 0.12)
= $420,000 - $48,000
= $372,000
Target cost per unit:
= Target cost ÷ Number of units
= $372,000 ÷ 20,000
= $18.60
Therefore, the target cost per unit is closest to $18.60.
Answer:
Explanation:
Price is sum of:
1. Present value of expected dividend payments during 1-4 years;
2. Present value of the expected market price at the end of the fourth year based on growth at 5%.
Present value of expected dividend payments during 1-4 years:
PV1 = 3*(1+0.30)*0.8929 = 3.90*0.8929 = $3.482
*0.8929 = 1/1.12
PV2 = 3.90*1.30*0.7972 = 5.07*0.7972 = $4.042
PV3 = 5.07*1.30*0.7118 = 6.591*0.7118 = $4.691
PV4 = 6.591*1.30*0.6355 = 8.5683*0.6355 = $5.445
Total = $17.661
Present value of the expected market price at the end of the fourth year:
Market price of the share at the end = 5th year dividend/(Required rate of return - growth rate)
5th year dividend = $8.5683*(1+growth rate) = $8.5683*(1+0.05) = $9
Market price of the share at the end = $9/(0.12-0.05) = $128.57
Present value of $128.57 is 128.57*0.6355(present value interest factor for year 4) = $81.7
So the price of share is $17.661+$81.7 = $99.37
Answer: Zero
Explanation:
The Correlation Coefficient measures the relationship between 2 variables under study and ranges from -1 to +1 which -1 meaning that the two are perfectly negatively correlated and +1 meaning they are perfectly positively correlation. A Correlation Coefficient of 0 means that there is no relationship.
An efficient market is one where all information is available to every market participant. This means that one cannot use information from one period to make abnormal profits in another period because all information is available. The Correlation Coefficient will therefore show 0 because information from the previous period is not being used in another period meaning there is no relationship between stock returns.
Answer and Explanation:
The Journal entry is shown below:-
Work in progress Dr, $24,000
To Manufacturing Overhead $24,000
(Being the overhead assigned is recorded)
For recording this we debited the work in process as it increased the assets and credited the manufacturing overhead for assigning the overhead
Working note
Overhead amount = (Milling Department + Cutting department) × Overhead rate
= (1,800 + 3,000) × $5
= $4,800 × $5
= $24,000
