?=4
we can remove the 0's from 40/60 and that gives us 4/6
The picture shows the answer I got!
Also! For the future, I use a site called
math way and it is great for problems like these.
The force is 1.6N and the distance between them is 1.3 meters
<h3>The force between them</h3>
An inverse variation from force to the square of distance is represented s:
k = Fd^2
Where k represents the variation constant
When F = 10, d = 2.
So, we have:
k = 10 * 2^2
k = 40
Substitute k = 40 in k = Fd^2
Fd^2 = 40
When d = 5, we have:
F * 5^2 = 40
This gives
25F = 40
Divide by 25
F = 1.6
Hence, the force is 1.6N
<h3>The distance between them</h3>
In (a), we have:
Fd^2 = 40
When F = 25, we have:
25 * d^2 = 40
This gives
25d^2 = 40
Divide by 25
d^2 = 1.6
Take the square root of both sides
d = 1.3
Hence, the distance between them is 1.3 meters
Read more about variation at:
brainly.com/question/14254277
#SPJ1
Answer:
rise over run
Step-by-step explanation:
the slope in graphing is rise over run