Answer:
Kindly check explanation
Explanation:
Given the following :
Present charge = 1045 per day
Trade price of RM = $3.1350/$
Malaysian inflation rate(mr) = 2.75% = 0.0275 per annum
US inflation rate (ur) = 1.25% = 0.0125 per annum
a. How many dollars might Theresa expect to need one year hence to pay for her 30-day vacation?
Trade price * (1 + mr) / (1 + ur)
Cost for 30 days considering inflation :
Present charge * (1 + mr) * 30
= $1045 * 1.0275 * 30
= $32212.125
Cost for 30 days considering inflation / [Trade price * (1 + mr) / (1 + ur)]
$32212.125 / 3.1350 * (1.0275) / (1.0125)
$32212.125 / 3.1814444
= $10125.000
b.) By what percent will the dollar cost have gone up? Why?
Dollar cost would have gone up by 1.25%, this is inferred from the inflation rate of the United States currency, which is the rate which will affe the cost of dollar.
Financial managers should strive to maximize the current value per share of the existing stock to: maximize shareholders' wealth.
What is the overriding goal of financial management?
The main objective of financial management is to increase shareholder's wealth such that share price increases in value year-in-year-out.
The financial managers would achieve this goal by investing in projects whose net present value is positive, in other words, the NPV per share is the expected increase in value per share of existing stock.
In short, financial strategies put in place to achieve increasing share price year-in-year-out are aimed at wealth maximization
Find out more about shareholder wealth on:brainly.com/question/27893002
#SPJ1
Answer:
To restore full employment in the short run during an inflationary gap condition, the government has to apply contractionary fiscal and monetary policies that will reduce the supply of money.
Explanation:
An inflationary gap is an economic situation that is characterised by excess demand. Particularly it is that situation when the real gross domestic product of a country is greater than the projected gross domestic product. In this condition, actual aggregate demand is higher than potential aggregate demand implying that more goods and services are needed to satisfy consumers. From another perspective, this could be caused by a fall in aggregate supply while aggregate demand remains stable.
Government intervention in this case is to reduce the money supply by implementing contractionary fiscal policies such as increasing taxes, reducing government expenditure which in turn reduces disposable income. Contractionary monetary policies that could be applied include increasing short-term interest rates, increasing reserve requirements. Though this policies come in with some unwanted side effects such as unemployemnt, they however serve as short term adjustment measures for an inflationary gap condition.
Answer: The Non Compete is NOT Enforceable.
Explanation:
An Agreement not to compete with your previous company is a RESTRICTIVE covenant that was generally introduced to ensure that Upper and Middle Management who were generally privy to Trade Secrets in an Organization do not take that information somewhere else and use it against that old company usually in exchange for better compensation packages.
Hernandez joined Access Organics and regrettably was not given a pay increase or any other special considerations. This is very relevant.
For a Non-compete to hold relevance especially if it is signed AFTER an employee has already being working in an organization, there needs to be SUFFICIENT Considerations that gave the employee better terms such as more job security or better benefits as a result of signing said agreement.
Andy Hernandez received no such benefits in return for signing the agreement and so the Non-compete Agreement lacks said Sufficient Considerations.
The Non-compete is therefore NOT ENFORCEABLE.
It is worthy of note that in the actual case, the Judge ruled in favor of of Andy Hernandez.
If you require further clarification do react or comment.
Answer:
a. $1,290,000
b. $3.80
Explanation:
a. The computation of the net income is shown below:
= Net income - preference dividend
= $1,500,000 - $210,000
= $1,290,000
b. The earning per share is shown below:
= (Net income) ÷ (weighted-average shares of common stock)
= ($1,290,000) ÷ (340,000 shares)
= $3.80
Simply we apply the net income formula after considering the preference dividend and then earning per share is computed
