Answer:
1/16
Step-by-step explanation:
There is a 50% chance of it being a boy or a girl also known as 1/2
So the first baby has a 1/2 chance, same for the second, and third, Which means that there is a 1/2, then another 1/2 and another 1/2. So you would have to multiply them all, 1/2*1/2*1/2 = 1/8. For the girl, again, it is 1/2 chance of being a girl, while the other 1/2 is a boy. So 1/8*1/2 is 1/16. So the probability so the women having 3 boys then a girl, is 1/16.
Hope this helps
To find the rate of change, you look at how much the y value increases with a change of 1 x. We see that as x increases from 1 to 2, y increases from 120 to 144. Then we subtract 144-120 to find the rate of change, which is just 24 (also note that x changes by 1 here).
Then for the initial value:
We see that y increases by 24 for 1 x, so subtracting the value at x=1 by 24 we get 120-24 = 96, which is the initial value.
Hope this helps
I’m not sure on how
To answer
Answer: 35
Explanation: If patty has $21, and $3 is the price for 5 hat pins, then: 21/3=7, so she can buy 7 packages which cost $3 and contain 5 pins, and because the question asked the number of pins, we will multiply 7 • 5 and that equals 35
