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4 years ago

2/3 times what equals 54

Mathematics

1 answer:

zepelin [54]4 years ago

4 0

81

Find this by dividing 54 by 2 thus getting 27
Multiply that by 3 to get the original integer which is 81 :)

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3 is 25% of what number?

stira [4]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

25%=1/4

of=*

3=1/4x

3 divided by 1/4 or 0.25 =12

6 0

4 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Write 77.5% as a fraction or mixed number in simplest form.

Delicious77 [7]

Answer:

The answer is $77\frac{1}{2}$ .

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

77.5%.

Now, to write as a fraction or mixed number in simplest form.

77.5%

So, we divide by 10 by removing decimal as decimal is at tenth place.

= $\frac{775}{10}$

So, simplifying it:

$=\frac{155}{2}$

Now, we change into mixed fraction:

$=77\frac{1}{2}$

Therefore, the answer is $77\frac{1}{2}$ .

7 0

3 years ago

Which statement is true about the given information?

Lubov Fominskaja [6]

Answer

∴ The true statement is Answer:

The true statement is BD ≅ CE ⇒ 3rd answer

Step-by-step explanation:

- There is a line contained points B , C , D , E

- All points are equal distance from each other

- That means the distance of BC equal the distance of CD and equal

the distance of DE

∴ BC = CD = DE

- That means the line id divided into 3 equal parts, each part is one

third the line

∴ BC = 1/3 BE

∴ CD = 1/3 BE

∴ DE = 1/3 BE

∵ BC = CD

∴ C is the mid-point of BD

∴ BC = 1/2 BD

∵ CD = DE

∴ D is the mid-point of DE

∴ CD = 1/2 CE

- Lets check the answers

* BD = one half BC is not true because BC = one half BD

* BC = one half BE is not true because BC = one third BE

* BD ≅ CE is true because

BD = BC + CD

CE = CD + DE

BC ≅ DE and CD is common

then BD ≅ CE

* BC ≅ BD is not true because BC is one half BD

∴ The true statement is BD ≅ CE

plz mark me brainliest

5 0

3 years ago

Let the probability of success on a Bernoulli trial be 0.26. a. In five Bernoulli trials, what is the probability that there wil

andreyandreev [35.5K]

Answer:

0.3898 = 38.98% probability that there will be 4 failures

Step-by-step explanation:

A sequence of Bernoulli trials forms the binomial probability distribution.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

Let the probability of success on a Bernoulli trial be 0.26.

This means that $p = 0.26$

a. In five Bernoulli trials, what is the probability that there will be 4 failures?

Five trials means that $n = 5$

4 failures, so 1 success, and we have to find P(X = 1).

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 1) = C_{5,1}.(0.26)^{1}.(0.74)^{4} = 0.3898$

0.3898 = 38.98% probability that there will be 4 failures

4 0

3 years ago

Please help me i’m desperateeee!!!

lara31 [8.8K]

Answer:

option no.D

6y+15x

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps

7 0

3 years ago