The opportunity cost is stated in relative pricing, that is, the price of one option in comparison to another.
When there are numerous vendors in a market but no one is significant enough to control the price of a product. Because both items must be produced, the relative price must match the opportunity cost. If the opportunity cost of one good is lower in the home country than so will be the relative price.
As bananas cost $0.90 per kg, so, if a toothpaste is for $2.25, we are forgoing 2.25 kgs banana (2.25/0.9). Thus, the opportunity cost is 2.5 kg bananas which is equal to the relative price of bananas.
Therefore, relative price is an opportunity cost.
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Answer:
$44.52
Explanation:
The value of the stock today can be determined by finding the present value of the liquidating dividends
Present value is the sum of discounted cash flows
Present value can be calculated using a financial calculator
Cash flow in year 1 = 17
Cash flow in year 1 = 32
I = 6%
PV = $44.52
To find the PV using a financial calculator:
1. Input the cash flow values by pressing the CF button. After inputting the value, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
2. after inputting all the cash flows, press the NPV button, input the value for I, press enter and the arrow facing a downward direction.
3. Press compute
Answer:
The correct answer is C.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Fixed manufacturing overhead cost of $497,000, variable manufacturing overhead of $2.40 per direct labor-hour, and 70,000 direct labor-hours.
T 498:
Total direct labor-hours 80
First, we need to calculate the estimated manufacturing overhead rate for the period:
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= (497,000/70,000) + 2.4= $9.5 per direct labor hour.
Now we can allocate the overhead to Job 498:
Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base
Allocated MOH= 9.5*80= $760
Answer:
Explanation:
a. The computation of the labor rate variance is shown below:
= Actual Hours × (Actual rate - standard rate)
= 5,050 × ($16.80 per hour - $16 per hour)
= 5,050 × $0.80 per hour
= $4,040 unfavorable
b. The computation of the labor time variance is shown below:
= Standard Rate × (Actual hours - Standard hours)
= $16 per hour × (5,050 hours - 1,000 × 5.4 hours)
= $16 per hour × -350 hours
= -$5,600 favorable
c. The computation of the total labor variance is shown below:
= (Actual hours × Actual rate) - (Standard hours × standard rate)
= (5,050 hours × $16.80 per hour) - (1,000 bicycles × 5.4 hours × $16 per hour)
= $84,840 - $86,400
= -$1,560 favorable
<span>What group is responsible for stepping in to prevent a bank run is</span>banking regulators like the Fed.
I hope this helps!