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tatyana61 [14]
3 years ago
11

1/3 x 1/4 = ?????????

Mathematics
2 answers:
valina [46]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

1/12

Step-by-step explanation:

When multiplying fractions, you multiply it like normal numbers, so 1 is multiplied by 1, and 3 is multiplied by 4.

<u>For example:</u>

3/4 x 9/10 would be equal to 27/40 because the 3 is multiplied by 9 and 4 is multiplied by 10.

3 x 9 = 27

4 x 10 40

27/40

Therefore on your question it would be 1/12.

solong [7]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

1/12

Step-by-step explanation:

1/4 X 1/3 = 1/12

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The one-time fling! Have you ever purchased an article of clothing (dress, sports jacket, etc.), worn the item once to a party,
Mama L [17]

Answer:

(a)\ P(x = 0) = 0.2725

(b)\ P(x \ge 1) =0.7275

(c)\ P(x \le 2) = 0.8948

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

n = 8 --- 8 friends

p = 15\% --- proportion that one-time fling

This question is an illustration of binomial probability, and it is represented as:

P(X = x) = ^nC_x* p^x * (1 - p)^{n-x}

Solving (a): P(x = 0) --- None has done one time fling

P(x = 0) = ^8C_0* (15\%)^0 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-0}

P(x = 0) = 1* 1 * (1 - 0.15)^{8}

P(x = 0) = 0.85^8

P(x = 0) = 0.2725

Solving (b): P(x \ge 1)

To do this, we make use of compliment rule:

P(x = 0) + P(x \ge 1) =1

Rewrite as:

P(x \ge 1) =1 - P(x = 0)

P(x \ge 1) =1 - 0.2725

P(x \ge 1) =0.7275

Solving (c): P(x\le 2)--- Not more than 2 has one time fling

This is calculated as:

P(x\le 2) = P(x = 0) + P(x =1) + P(x = 2)

We have:

P(x = 0) = 0.2725

P(x = 1) = ^8C_1* (15\%)^1 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-1}

P(x = 1) = 8* (0.15) * (1 - 0.15)^7

P(x = 1) = 0.3847

P(x = 2) = ^8C_2* (15\%)^2 * (1 - 15\%)^{8-2}

P(x = 2) = 28* (0.15)^2 * (1-0.15)^6

P(x = 2) = 0.2376

So:

P(x\le 2) = P(x = 0) + P(x =1) + P(x = 2)

P(x \le 2) = 0.2725 + 0.3847 + 0.2376

P(x \le 2) = 0.8948

4 0
3 years ago
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