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svetlana [45]
2 years ago
5

Local Savings Bank has a $35 overdraft fee. On Friday, Mr. Baratheon

Mathematics
1 answer:
djverab [1.8K]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

-287.66

Step-by-step explanation:

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Jason and Jill or two students in mr. White's math class. On the last 5 quizzes Jason scored an 80 90 95 85 and 70. Jill scored
Mrac [35]

Jason's scores : 80 90 95 85 70 and

Jill's score : 70 75 90 100 95.

Mean of Jason's scores = \frac{80 + 90 + 95 + 85 + 70}{5}=\frac{420}{5}=84.

Mean of Jill's scores = \frac{70+75+90+100+95}{5}=\frac{430}{5}=86

Now, in order to find the mean absolute deviation, need to find the difference of each score from means.

<u>Mean absolute deviation for Jason's scores.</u>        

|84-80| = 4

|84-90| = 6

|84-95| = 9

|84-85| = 1

|84-70|= 14

\frac{4+6+9+1+14}{5}=\frac{34}{5}=6.8

<u>Mean absolute deviation for Jill's scores</u>

|86-70| = 16

|86-75| = 11

|86-90| = 4

|86-100| = 14

|86-95|= 9

\frac{16+11+4+14+9}{5}=\frac{54}{5}=10.8

Jill got average quiz score 86 and Jason got 84.

Therefore, Jill got better quiz average.

Also, the mean absolute deviation for Jason scores is less that is 6.8 than 10.8.

Therefore, Jason got more consistent grades.

8 0
3 years ago
What is the mean median and mode of 201,201,200,199,199
Rasek [7]

Answer:

the median will be 200.

the mode will be 402 n 398.

the mean will be 400.

8 0
2 years ago
Can someone explain how you do this and not only give me a answer?
german
You plug in 2 for the w and do 17 minus 2 and then you divide that by 3 so ur answer is going to be 17-2 which is 15 and then divide 15 by 3 and you get 5
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A number divided by 58 is close to 30
AlexFokin [52]
The number could be <span>1843</span>
5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A sequence of Bernoulli trials consists of choosing components at random from a batch of components. A selected component is eit
Drupady [299]

Answer:

a) 0.0287 = 2.87% probability that three non-defective components in a batch of seven components.

b) 0.0336 = 3.36% probability that 8 non-defective components are drawn before the first defective component is chosen.

Step-by-step explanation:

A sequence of Bernoulli trials composes the binomial distribution.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

The probability that a selected component is non-defective is 0.8

This means that p = 0.8

a) Three non-defective components in a batch of seven components.

This is P(X = 3) when n = 7. So

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 3) = C_{7,3}.(0.8)^{3}.(0.2)^{4} = 0.0287

0.0287 = 2.87% probability that three non-defective components in a batch of seven components.

b) 8 non-defective components are drawn before the first defective component is chosen.

Now the order is important, so the we just multiply the probabilities.

8 non-defective, each with probability 0.8, and then a defective, with probability 0.2. So

p = (0.8)^8*0.2 = 0.0336

0.0336 = 3.36% probability that 8 non-defective components are drawn before the first defective component is chosen.

4 0
2 years ago
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