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Citrus2011 [14]
3 years ago
12

A one-year call option contract on Cheesy Poofs Co. stock sells for $1,250. In one year, the stock will be worth $57 or $78 per

share. The exercise price on the call option is $70. What is the current value of the stock if the risk-free rate is 2 percent? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.)
Business
1 answer:
ale4655 [162]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Value of call option = 3.92

Explanation:

Stock price - Exercise price, 0

When share price is $57,

Payoff = Max (57 - 70, 0)

Payoff = Max (-13, 0)

Payoff = 0

When share price is $78

Payoff = Max (78 - 70, 0)

Payoff = Max (8, 0)

Payoff = 8

Value of call option = (Expected payoff * Probaliltiy) / (1 + Interest for the period)

Considering probability as 50% for each stock

Value of call option = (0 * 0.5 + 8 * 0.5) / (1 + 0.02)

Value of call option = 3.92

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the text presents three arguments in support of global advertising. what are those three arguments? multiple select question.
anyanavicka [17]

Informative, Persuasive, Reminder

Advertising that is informative raises people's awareness of brands, services, goods, and concepts. It can educate people about the features and benefits of new or established products as well as new programs and products.

Persuasive advertising works to change people's perceptions of a company or product and improve its image by trying to persuade them that its services or products are the best. Its objective is to convince customers to act and switch brands, try new products, or stick with one brand.

People are reminded about the need for a product or service or the features and benefits it will provide if they buy it quickly in reminder advertising.

To know more about advertising visit brainly.com/question/3163475?referrer=searchResults

#SPJ4

4 0
1 year ago
An investment project provides cash inflows of $1,275 per year for eight years. a. What is the project payback period if the ini
photoshop1234 [79]

Answer:

The correct answer for option (a) is 3.22 years, option (b) is 4.04 years and for option (c) is 0 years.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Cash inflow = $1,275

Project payback period = Initial cost ÷ Cash inflow

(a). Initial cost = $4,100

So, Project payback period = $4,100 ÷ $1,275

= 3.22 years

(b) Initial cost = $5,150

So, Project payback period = $5,150 ÷ $1,275

= 4.04 years

(c). Initial cost = $11,200

So, Project payback period = $11,200 ÷ $1,275

= 8.78 years

As it is more than the eight years period, it never pays back.

So, 0 years

7 0
3 years ago
Finding dominant strategies is often a very way of analyzing a game. Consider the following game: Microsoft and Apple are the tw
STALIN [3.7K]

Answer: Option A -- Choosing low is a weakly dominant strategy for Apple.

Explanation: Dominant strategy in a game theory can be defined as the course of action that occurs when one strategy/player is better than the other strategy/player regardless of what the other player does or how well the other player may play. dominant strategy is all about a player who has the highest favours in a game. Considering the above matrix, we know that Apple has the dominant strategy. And for apple to choose low is a weakly dominant strategy for it.

7 0
3 years ago
Two projects, A and B, are analyzed using ranking present worth analysis with MARR at i%. It is found that PW(A) . PW(B). If MAR
vivado [14]

Answer: The relationship between A and B project cannot be determined with the information given.

Explanation: The relationship between PW(A) and PW(B) is the correlation between project A and Project B in a portfolio.

This is not possible to be calculated with the information given.

But an expression of calculating this is;

PW is the present value of A and B projects.

MARR is the minimum acceptable rate of return

The calculate the correlation of the two project, divide MARR by the multiple of the two project.

That is;

Correlation = MARR ÷ [PW(A) × PW(B)]

Therefore;

Correlation = i11% ÷ [PW(A) × PW(B)]

This shows that the relationship cannot be determined with the limited Information supplied.

3 0
3 years ago
Search... Unlock all answers JOIN FOR FREE jswagballerlife4060 01/08/2020 Business College answered LO 5.3Direct material costs
Tomtit [17]

Answer:

$130,000

Explanation:

Calculation to determine the value of the inventory transferred to the next department

First step is to calculate the Cost per unit

Using this formula

Cost per unit = Direct material costs + Direct labor costs + Overhead

Let plug in the formula

Cost per unit=$3+$5+(100%*$5)

Cost per unit = $3 + $5 + $5

Cost per unit = $13

Second step is to calculate the inventory transferred using this formula

Inventory transferred = Beginning inventory + Started Inventory - Ending inventory .

Let plug in the formula

Inventory transferred = 2,000 + 9,000 - 1,000

Inventory transferred = 10,000 units

Now let calculate the value of the inventory transferred

Using this formula

Value of inventory transferred = Inventory transferred × Cost per unit

Let plug in the formula

Value of inventory transferred = 10000 × $13

Value of inventory transferred = $130,000

Therefore the value of the inventory transferred to the next department is $130,000

8 0
3 years ago
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