Well, yes, is that's the question
The amount of interest expense for an interesting period is calculated by multiplying the carrying value of the bonds at the beginning of the period by the effective interest rate.
Amortization is an accounting approach used to periodically decrease the ebook value of a loan or an intangible asset over a fixed time frame. Concerning a mortgage, amortization focuses on spreading out mortgage bills through the years. When applied to an asset, amortization is similar to depreciation.
Amortized price is an accounting approach in which all economic properties need to be suggested on a stability sheet at their amortized fee that is identical to their acquisition general minus their essential payments and any reductions or charges minus any impairment losses and change variations.
Input the corresponding values in cells B1 thru B3. In cellular B4, input the components "=-PMT(B2/1200, B3*12, B1)" to have Excel routinely calculate the monthly charge. As an example, in case you had a $25,000 mortgage at 6.5 percent annual hobby for 10 years, the month-to-month fee could be $283.87.
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Tax multiplier = -1.5
Tax increase = $200 billion
Therefore, since the multiplier is a negative value, the GDP must have gone down.
GDP = Tax increase/Tax multiplier = 200/-1.5 = $133.33 billion decrease.
Then, the correct answer is c.
People bought more goods and created high demand for new products
Answer:
decreases, increases
Explanation:
An open market operation where the government buys securities increases the money supply so the Federal funds rates increases. Because of the increase in money supply, the reserves held by banks would increase.
the federal funds rate is the interest rate at which banks can borrow or lend excess reserves overnight
