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Misha Larkins [42]
3 years ago
14

Find the measures of <1 and <2 if <3 = 78^0 and <4 = 102^0.

Mathematics
2 answers:
zhuklara [117]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

oops look in commments

Step-by-step explanation:

professor190 [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

my acc just got yeeted by a penguin pfp

Step-by-step explanation:

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Helpppppppppppppppppppppppppppppppp
nirvana33 [79]

Answer:

= 15.6 \times 18 \\  = 280.8 \:  {in}^{2}  \\  =  >  \: six \: sides \\  = 280.8 \times 6 \\  = 1684.8 \:  {in}^{2}

8 0
2 years ago
I need help on this plz i don’t understand the question
AnnZ [28]

We know that the area of a circle in terms of π will be πr². However the area with respect to the diameter will be a different story. The first step here is to find a function relating the area and diameter of any circle --- ( 1 )

For any circle the diameter is 2 times the radius,

d = 2r

Therefore r = d / 2, which gives us the following formula through substitution.

A = π(d / 2)² = πd² / 4

<u>Hence the area of a circle as the function of it's diameter is A = πd² / 4. You can also say f(d) = πd² / 4.</u>

Now we can substitute " d " as 4, solving for the area ( A ) or f(4) --- ( 2 )

f(4) = π(4)² / 4 = 16π / 4 = 4π - <u>This makes the area of circle present with a diameter of 4 inches, 4π.</u>

3 0
3 years ago
Please Help , Thank You
yan [13]
The answer to your question is a,c,d

5 0
3 years ago
Please help me I have 10 minutes no scams I’m in 7th grade
dangina [55]

Answer:

The answer is 37

Step-by-step explanation:

180- 143= 37

6 0
3 years ago
2+2=? Because I’m trying to explain it to a 2 year old.
spayn [35]

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 2 + 2 = 4

6 0
3 years ago
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