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Goshia [24]
2 years ago
9

PLEASE help me. This is due today

Mathematics
2 answers:
insens350 [35]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A. A negative linear association

Step-by-step explanation:

The points are close enough for a line of best fit, therefore they are linearly associated and they are going down so it is negative association.

MrRa [10]2 years ago
3 0

Answer:

negative linear

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Let Xbar = sample mean household size

The z score probability distribution for sample mean is give by;

             Z = \frac{Xbar-\mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n} } } ~ N(0,1)

So, probability that the sample mean household size is between 2.50 and 2.66 people = P(2.50 < Xbar < 2.66)

P(2.50 < Xbar < 2.66) = P(Xbar < 2.66) - P(Xbar \leq 2.50)

P(Xbar < 2.66) = P( \frac{Xbar-\mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n} } } < \frac{2.66-2.78}{\frac{0.75}{\sqrt{110} } } ) = P(Z < -1.68) = 1 - P(Z  1.68)

                                                              = 1 - 0.95352 = 0.04648

P(Xbar \leq 2.50) = P( \frac{Xbar-\mu}{\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n} } } \leq \frac{2.50-2.78}{\frac{0.75}{\sqrt{110} } }  ) = P(Z \leq  -3.92) = 1 - P(Z < 3.92)

                                                              = 1 - 0.99996 = 0.00004  

Therefore, P(2.50 < Xbar < 2.66) = 0.04648 - 0.00004 = 0.046

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