Answer: B
Step-by-step explanation: option B would be a better deal than option a because if you go off went golfing and use option a every month and paid $25 It would add up to $85 a month so it’s better to do b and option a would be a better deal if you only went golfing one time a month. I hope this makes sense!
q(x=f(x-h+k
here, h=0, k=-8, so
to translate f(x) 8 units down, we have
q(x)=f(x-0)-8
=2x^2-3x+5-8
=2x^2-3x-3
Answer:
Rs 120.
Step-by-step explanation:
10=0.85SP-CP; CP+10=0.85SP; SP=[CP+10]/0.85 Eq 1. Let SP= Selling Price and CP= Cost Price
-2 =0.75SP-CP; 0.75SP=C-2; SP=[CP-2]/0.75 Eq 2
[CP+10]/0.85=[CP-2]/0.75 : SP of Eq 1=SP of Eq 2
0.75[CP+10]=0.85[CP-2]
0.75CP+7.5=0.85CP-1.7
0.85CP-0.75CP=-1.7–7.5=9.2
0.10CP=9.2; CP=9.2/0.10
CP=Rs 92 Cost Price of pen
10=0.85SP-92; 0.85SP=92+10=102; SP=102/0.85=Rs 120 Marked Price of pen (answer)
From Eq2: -2=0.75SP-CP; 0.75SP=CP-2=92–2=90; SP=90/0.75=Rs120; -2=0.75(120)-CP; CP-2=0.75(120); CP-2=90; CP=90+2=Rs 92
Set CP of Eq 1=CP of Eq 2:
CP=0.85SP-10 from Eq 1; CP=0.75SP+2 from Eq 2;
0.85SP-10=0.75SP+2; 0.85SP-0.75SP=10+2=12
0.10SP=12; SP=12/0.10=Rs120 is the Marked Price(answer)
Normally, the Selling Price is the marked price. The seller will not disclose the Cost Price because it is the price when the item was acquired or procured, otherwise the buyer will ask for more discounts and based his buying price from the Cost Price if it is known. The calculated SP and CP satisfy both Eq 1 and Eq 2. Both Eq 1 and Eq 2 satisfy the given conditions of the problem above.
As the equation does not consists like terms we can only get x , y equations.
Step-by-step explanation:
Firstly, they are not like terms.
If the value to be is found is X then,
8x+5y=4
Now subtract 5y on both sides
8x+5y-5y=4-5y
here both positive 5y and negative 5y get cancelled
Now divide by 8
x=(4-5y)/8
If we need y value then,
subtracting both sides by 8x
5y=4-8x
Now dividing with 5 on both sides
y=(4-8x)/5 =>y=4/5 -8x/5
According to Y=mx+c
slope = m = 4/5
y-intercept = -8x/5.
Answer:
m = x+y-z
Step-by-step explanation:
Given the expression.
(a^x a ^y) ÷ a^z = a^m
We are to express m in terms of x, y and z.
Using the multiplicative law of indices, the expression becomes:
a^{x+y} ÷ a^z = a^m
Applying the division rule in indices
a^{x+y} ÷ a^z = a^{x+y-z}
The equation becomes
a^{x+y-z} = a^m
Cancel out the base and equate the powers as shown:
x+y-z = m
Hence the expression of m in terms of x, y and z is m = x+y-z
