Answer:
Two ways: using VIX futures and traded notes or S&P 500 options and neutral investment strategies.
Explanation:
Volatility is a market's tendency to rise or fall sharply within short periods of time. It is usually measured using standard deviation or return on investment. There are several ways to handle market volatility. One is to use exchange-traded instruments, such as VIX future contracts and exchange traded notes. VIX provides real time estimations of greed and fear levels, as well as volatility expectations in the next 30 sessions. The other way is to use S&P 500 options and delta-neural strategies.
Answer:
A) a person who forms and operates a business
Explanation:
An entrepreneur is a person who forms and operates a business. An entrepreneur is one of the factors of production. Other factors include land, labour and capital.
An entrepreneur takes up the financial risk of a business.
An entrepreneur earns profit or loss.
A shareholder is a person who invests in an existing business
A bondholder is a person who lends capital to a new business
I hope my answer helps you.
Answer:
B. $633,600
Explanation:
The formula to calculate Asset turnover is:
A=R/S
A is asset revenue, R is revenue and S is assets
So you clear the R from the equation in order to solve for revenue:
R=A*S
insert the known values into the formula:
R=A*S
R=7.2*88,000
R=633,600
So the answer is B. $633,600
Answer:
d. PMT x {[(1 + r)^n - 1]/r)
Explanation:
Annuity is a payment of fix amount for specified period of time. It Future value can be calculated by using compounding effect formula only.
PMT/r is a formula for perpetuity it is not for annuity because it does not involve any time period.
PMT x {[(1 + r)^n - 1]/r} x (1 + r). this is a wrong formula as it does not have any function of present value or future value, it is mixed formula, which made incorrectly.
PMT x {1 - [1/(1 + r)^n]}/r this formula is for present value of annuity not for future value of annuity.
PMT x {[(1 + r)^n - 1]/r) is a future value of annuity formula because it involves the compounding effect.
Answer:
Option (b) is correct.
Explanation:
Net income for common shares = Net income - Preferred dividend
= $700,000 - (100,000 ÷ 2)
= $650,000
weighted-average number of common shares outstanding = 200,000 shares
Earning per share:
= Net income for common shares ÷ weighted-average number of common shares
= $650,000 ÷ 200,000
= 3.25