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OleMash [197]
2 years ago
9

Answer these all ASAP

Business
2 answers:
Hitman42 [59]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

A, A , D then 1 is C, 2 is A, 3 is B, 4 is D

Explanation:

here is your answer.

likoan [24]2 years ago
6 0
A
A
D
1=c
2=a
3=b
4=d

Should all be right
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At​ year-end, Simple has cash of $ 22 comma 000​, current accounts receivable of $ 80 comma 000​, merchandise inventory of $ 24
oee [108]

Answer:

45.62 days

Explanation:

For computing the average number of days receivables, first, we have to calculate the account receivable ratio. The formula is shown below:

Account receivable ratio = Net credit sales ÷ Average accounts receivable

where,

Average account receivable = (Beginning account receivable balance + ending account receivable balance) ÷ 2

Now put these values to the above formula

So, the answer would be equal to

= $480,000 ÷ ($40,000 + $80,000 ÷ 2)

= $480,000 ÷ $60,000

= 8 times

Now, the average level of​ receivables equals to

= Total number of days in a year ÷ Account receivable ratio

= 365 days ÷ 8

= 45.62 days

5 0
3 years ago
During 2017 the DLD Company had a net income of $85,000. In addition, selectedaccounts showed the following changes: Accounts Re
miv72 [106K]

Answer:

A) $84,500

Explanation:

The cash flow statement categories the company's transactions in a financial period into 3 groups; these are operating, investing and financing.

The net profit/loss, depreciation, changes in current assets (other than cash) and liabilities are considered as operating activities including income taxes.  

The sale of assets, interest received, purchase of investments are examples of investing activities while the issuance of stocks, debt principal deduction (loan settlement), issuance of debt securities etc are examples of financing activities.

Hence, amount of cash provided by operating activities

= -$3,000 + $1,000 + $1,500 + $85,000

= $84,500

The increase in asset other than cash is an outflow, increase in liability is an inflow of cash. Depreciation is a non-cash item added back while increase in building and bond payable are investing and financing activities respectively.

7 0
3 years ago
The following information is available for Patrick Products for the year: Budgeted sales during the year 5,000 units Actual sale
cupoosta [38]

Answer:

$125,000 Adverse variance as the cost actually incurred is higher.

Explanation:

The first step here is to find the Flexed Variable Overhead Cost by using the unitary method:

Budgeted overhead cost for 10,000 budgeted hrs = $2500,000

Budgeted overhead cost for 1 budgeted hrs = $2500,000 / 10000 bud. hrs

Budgeted overhead cost for 1 budgeted hrs = $250 per standard hr

And as we know that

Flexed Variable Overhead Budget = Actual Units * Budgeted overhead cost for standard hr

By simply putting values we have:

Flexed Variable Overhead Budget = 9000 hours * $250 per standard hr

= $2,2500,000

Now we will find the Flexible-budget Variable Overhead Variance by taking the difference of Variable overhead flexible budget and Actual Variable Overhead.

Flexible-budget Variable Overhead Variance = Variable overhead flexible budget - Actual Variable Overhead

By putting the values we have:

Flexible-budget Variable Overhead Variance = $2,2500,000 - $2,375,000

= $125,000 Adverse variance as the cost actually incurred is higher.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Cellular Talk is a new firm in a rapidly growing industry. The company is planning on increasing its annual dividend by 25% a ye
kondaur [170]

Answer:

$12.14

Explanation:

The computation of the current value of one share of the stock is shown below:

D2 = (1 × 1.25) = $1.25

D3 = (1.25 × 1.25) = $1.5625

Now

Value after year 3 is

= (D3 × Growth rate) ÷ (Required return - Growth rate)

= (($1.5625 × 1.06) ÷ [0.17 - 0.06)]

= $15.05681818

Now

Current value is

= Future dividends × Present value of discounting factor(17%,time period)

= $1 ÷ 1.17 + $1.25 ÷ 1.17^2 + $1.5625 ÷ 1.17^3 + $15.05681818/1.17^3

= $12.14

7 0
2 years ago
Stock J has a beta of 1.26 and an expected return of 13.46 percent, while Stock K has a beta of .81 and an expected return of 10
Oxana [17]

Answer:

J = 0.422

K = 0.58

Explanation:

When a portfolio is said to have risk that is equal to market, this means that the beta is equal to 1.

Let us define the weight of stock J = x

Let us define the Weight of stock K = (1-x)

To get the The Beta of portfolio = (x*1.26) + ((1-x)*0.81) = 1

When we open the brackets,

1.26x + 0.81 - .81x = 1

1.26x-0.81x = 1-0.81

0.45x = 0.19

To get x we divide through by 0.45

X = 0.422

Therefore the Weight of stock J = 0.422

Then the Weight of stock K = 1 - 0.422 = 0.578

Approximately 0.58

5 0
3 years ago
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