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Dominik [7]
3 years ago
12

Today I spent 90 minutes playing sports. Sixty percent of the time I was playing tennis. For how many minutes did I play tennis?

Mathematics
2 answers:
jeyben [28]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

54min

Step-by-step explanation:

Darina [25.2K]3 years ago
5 0
The answer is 54 minutes because 60% of 90 is 54
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under a dilation, the point (2,6) is moved to (6,18) what is the scale factor of the dilation? enter your answer in the box​
Anestetic [448]
<h2>3</h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of line passing through the two points is \frac{y-y_{1} }{x-x_{1} }=\frac{y_{2} -y_{1}}{x_{2} -x_{1}}

When substituted,the equation becomes \frac{y-6}{x-2}=\frac{18-6}{6-2}

which when simplified is y=3\times x

The line clearly passes through origin.

The distance between two points is \sqrt{(y_{1}-y_{2} )^{2}+(x_{1}- x_{2} )^{2}}

Distance between origin and (2,6) is \sqrt{40}.

Distance between origin and (6,18) is \sqrt{360}

Scale factor is  \frac{distance\text{ }of\text{ }p_{2}\text{ from origin}}{distance \text{ } of \text{ } p_{1}\text{ from origin}}

So,scale factor is \frac{\sqrt{360} }{\sqrt{40} }

which when simplified becomes 3.

6 0
3 years ago
GEOMETRY:
iragen [17]

Answer:

See explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

∠POR is congruent to ∠VOE because they are vertical angles

∠PRV is congruent to ∠RVE because alternate interior angles are congruent when the lines are parallel.

VO is congruent to OR which is given

Therefore, ΔPRO is congruent to ΔEVO by the angle-side-angle theorem

So, PR is congruent to VE because corresponding parts of congruent triangles are congruent

6 0
3 years ago
Solve the equation below. SHOW UR WORK<br><br> 10x − 6 = 24
Lina20 [59]

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

10x-6=24

10x = 24+6 (You switch sides because you can add 24 and 6. You cannot add 10x to 24 or 6)

10x= 30

x= 30/10

x= 3

The answer is 3.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. What is the probability of getting a red 10?
ohaa [14]

Answer:

1/13

Step-by-step explanation:

<em>Knowing that:</em>

<em>In a deck of card half of the deck of card are red: 1/2  </em>

<em>Also means 52/2 = 26</em>

<em> There are 2 red 10 in a deck of card.</em>

<em>Solve:</em>

<em>Since there are 2 red 10 in a deck of card and half of the deck of 52 card are red also known as 26.</em>

<em>Thus, the probability of getting a red 10 is 2/26. As you can see that not a answer choice. That because 2/26 is a even number as well as it means that it can be simplify.</em>

<em> GCD (or HCF) of 2 and 26 is 2.</em>

<em>Therefore, divide both by 2.</em>

<em>2/2 = 1</em>

<em>26/2 = 13</em>

<em>Hence, we can see that the simplify form is 1/13.</em>

<em>As a result, the probability of getting a red 10 is 1/13.</em>

<em />

<u><em>~lenvy~</em></u>

3 0
3 years ago
Inverse of y equals 12 to the x
e-lub [12.9K]

Answer:

f^{-1}(x) = log_{12}(y)

Step-by-step explanation:

We have the following function

y = 12^x, and we need to find the inverse function.

To find the inverse function we should solve the equation for "x". To do so, first, we need to:

1. Take the logarithm in both sides of the equation:

lg_12 (y) = log _12 (12^x)

(Please read lg_12 as: "Logarithm with base 12")

From property of logarithm, we know that lg (a^b) = b*log(a)

Then:

lg_12 (y) = x*log _12 (12)

We also know that log _12 (12) = 1

Then:

x = log_12(y).

Then, the inverse of: y= 12^x is:

f^{-1}(x) = log_{12}(y)

5 0
3 years ago
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