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Tems11 [23]
3 years ago
5

"Husband, wife and prepubescent children, if they are all under the same master, may not be taken and sold separately. We declar

e the seizing and sales that shall be done as such to be void. For slaves who have been separated, we desire that the seller shall risk their loss, and that the slaves he kept shall be awarded to the buyer, without him having to pay any supplement" Article XLVII, my question is what does this basically mean. Like can someone just summarize this for me? It's due today thank you!
History
1 answer:
son4ous [18]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Summarize this in simple words. If you intend to sale one male slave for 20 dallors and family would provide a price of 30 dallors. You would lose 10 dallors on the sale.

Explanation:

Now slave owners of blacks would usually without letter of the law trade under the table and the law would have no way to track these sales. This was formal right of sell to protect families trying to be separated. I believe later on in US history this law is abolished or dissolved. Of course very few blacks could read or write and had no position to fight law written for the sale of his property. There are few cases in US history that did win these legal battles. They are more like a needle in hay stack.

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