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satela [25.4K]
3 years ago
9

In the welding operations of a bicycle manufacturer, a bike frame has a flow time of about 13.6 hours. The time in the welding o

peration is spent as follows: 3 hours waiting in front of the cutting machine for the batch to start, 3 hours waiting for the setup of the machine, 1 hour waiting for the other pieces of the batch to go through cutting, 2 minute at the cutting machine, and 3 hours waiting for the transfer to the welding machine. Then, at the welding machine, the unit spends 1 hour waiting in front of the welding machine for the batch to start, 1 hour waiting for the setup of the welding machine, 0.6 hour waiting for the other pieces of the batch to go through welding, 0.65 minute at the welding machine, and 1 hour waiting for the transfer to the next department.
1. Determine the exact flow time.2. What is the value-added percentage of the flow time?
Business
1 answer:
Oksana_A [137]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Exact flow time in hours

13.64416 hours

% value added flow time = 0.3236

Explanation:

Hours to start = 3

Set up = 3 hours

Time spent cutting = 2 minutes

Time through cutting = 1 hour

Transfer = 3 hours

Time waiting for welding machine = 1 hour

Time for set up = 1 hour

Time waiting for pieces of batch = 0.6 hours

Time at welding machine = 0.65 minutes

Time to transfer to next department = 1 hour

To get the exact flow time we convert the minutes to hour

2 minutes to hour = 2/60 = 0.03333

0.65 minutes to hour = 0.65/60 = 0.01083

We sum up all of these hours

3+3+0.03333+1+3+1+1+0.6+0.01083+1 = 13.64416 hours

1.

13.64416 is the exact flow time in hours.

2.

Value added percentage of flow time

13.64416-13.6

= 0.04416

Percentage = 0.04416/13.64416*100

= 0.003236x100

= 0.3236%

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<u>Answer:</u> Option C

<u>Explanation:</u>

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Calculation of total compensation

Employee benefits = $64000 x 12.5/100

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Assume that General Electric (GE)'s current assets are $401 billion, fixed assets are $797 billion, current liabilities are $323
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Answer:

Answer is explained below in the explanation section.

Explanation:

Solution:

We can not solve this question as it lacks necessary data.

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$401 billion - $401 billion = 0.

0 is the GE's translation exposure using current/noncurrent method.

2. Using Monetary/Non-monetary:

We can not calculate this requirement as we don't have the breakdown of GE's assets and liabilities under monetary/nonmonetary. So, it is not possible under the given information.

3. GE's Translation Exposure using Temporal method:

Again, we do lack necessary data to solve for this requirement. We need GE's breakdown of current assets and inventory and monetary assets to solve this question. Therefore, it is not possible to solve this question.

4. GE's Translation Exposure Using Current Rate methods:

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Mission Company is thinking of discontinuing product line F because it is reporting an operating loss. All fixed costs are unavo
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Operating income will decrease.

Explanation:

The company's operating income is dependent on the production lines and in the short run the company might be cutting its expenses and losses by shutting down the production line but cutting a part of the company which can produce revenue is never a solution rather the company checks how they can cut down their expenses as they have unavoidable fixed expenses by this action it will seem that they will cut $21000 rental expense only and how much revenue will they will actually loose? a lot.

The company can even adjust on the space they rent or move t a cheaper cost and also work on the expenses that are unavoidable to decrease them and maximize on getting more revenue.

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Ajax Corporation has just decided to let managers work from home one day a week. This decision will
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4 years ago
Plainville Corporation has the following data, in thousands. Assuming a 365-day year, what is the firm's cash conversion cycle?
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Answer:

Inventory cycle  = <u>Inventory </u>               x 365  days

                             Cost of goods sold      

Inventory cycle  = <u>$75,000</u>     x 365 days

                              $360,000  

                           = 76.04 days

Receivable days =  <u>Accounts receivable</u> x  365 days

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                            = <u>$160,000</u>   x 365 days

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                            =  97.33 days

Payable days      = <u>Accounts payable</u>  x 365 days

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                            = <u>$25,000 </u>    x 365 days

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= 76.04 days + 97.33 days - 25.35 days

=  148.0 days

Explanation:

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