Answer:
5.85%
Explanation:
Suppose the real risk-free rate is 3.50%, the average future inflation rate is 2.25%, and a maturity premium of 0.10% per year to maturity applies, i.e., MRP = 0.10%(t), where t is the years to maturity. What rate of return would you expect on a 1-year Treasury security, assuming the pure expectations theory is NOT valid? Disregard cross-product terms, i.e., if averaging is required, use the arithmetic average.
a. 5.75%
B. 5.85%
c. 5.95%
d. 6.05%
e. 6.15%
r = r* + IP + DRP + LP + MRP
r = 3.50% + 2.25% + 0 + 0 + .10% = 5.85%
Answer:
Explanation:
At $0.86
$0.86<$0.89
The buyer of the call option will not exercise the option. Net profit will be equal to the premium paid per unit = $0.02/unit.
At $0.87
$0.87<$0.89
The buyer of the call option will still not exercise the option. Therefore, net profit will be equal to the premium paid per unit = $0.02 unit. So net profit = $0.02/unit
At $0.88
$0.88<$0.89
The buyer of the call option will still not exercise the option. Net profit will be equal to the premium paid per unit = $0.02 unit. So net profit = $0.02/unit
At $0.89
$0.89=$0.89
The buyer of the call option will still not exercise the option. Net profit will be equal to the premium paid per unit = $0.02/unit.
At $0.91
The buyer will exercise the option and the net loss to Bulldog Inc will be 0.02/unit ($0.91-$0.89)
So there is no profit and no loss because this is offset by the call premium
Profit = -0.02 (loss on exercise) + 0.02 (call premium) = $0/unit
At $0.92
The buyer will exercise the option. The net loss to Bulldog Inc will be $0.03/unit ($0.92-$0.89)
Loss= -0.03 (loss on exercise) + 0.02 (call premium) = -$0.01/unit
Answer:
a. How much will Ruby’s IRA be worth when she needs to start withdrawing money from it when she retires?
the future value of Ruby's IRA = $10,000 x 21.725 (FV factor, 8%, 40 periods) = $217,250
b. How much money will she have to accumulate in her company’s 401(k) plan over the next 40 years in order to reach her retirement income goal?
she needs to accumulate $875,000 - $217,250 = $657,750 during the next 40 years
the annual contribution = FV / FV annuity factor = $657,750 / 259.057 (FV annuity factor, 8%, 40 periods) = $2,539.02 per year
Answer:
A & C are correct
Explanation:
Payback period is a capital budgeting technique used to determine the number of years it would take a project cash inflows to fully recover the initial amount invested. Since it involves basic addition of subsequent expected cash inflows to determine at what point in time the balance changes from negative to positive ,regular payback period does not take into account the time value of money.
Additionally, payback period determination ignores future cashflows after the balance has changed from negative to positive. Due to this reason, it does not take into account the project's entire life.