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UkoKoshka [18]
3 years ago
7

if the marginal propensity to save is 0.12 the marginal propensity to consume(mpc) is the multiplier is

Business
1 answer:
Vlad [161]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

If the marginal propensity to save is 0.12, the marginal propensity to consume(mpc) is 0.88, and the multiplier is 8.33.

Explanation:

From the question, we are given the following:

mps = Marginal propensity to save = 0.12

The marginal propensity to consume (mpc) and the multiplier can therefore be calculated as follows:

mpc = 1 - mps ........................ (1)

Substituting the values for mps into equation (1), we have:

mpc = 1 - 0.12

mpc = 0.88

Also, we have:

Multiplier = 1 / mps ..................... (2)

Substituting the values for mps into equation (2), we have:

Multiplier = 1 / 0.12

Multiplier = 8.33

Therefore, if the marginal propensity to save is 0.12, the marginal propensity to consume(mpc) is 0.88, and the multiplier is 8.33.

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What happens to the equilibrium price when supplies goes down
wariber [46]
An equilibrium price is where the quantity of goods supplied is equal to the quantity of goods demanded. So if supplies of the said product goes down the equilibrium will go down and the price and demand will be higher.
3 0
4 years ago
On January 1, 2020, Pharoah Company, a calendar-year company, issued $1680000 of notes payable, of which $420000 is due on Janua
irinina [24]

Answer:

Option C.

Current liabilities, $420,000;

Long-term Debt, $1,260,000.

Explanation:

The reason is that the amount that will be paid within the next 12 is current liabilities, so the amount $420,000 is current liability as it will be paid within the next 12 months. So the remainder of the amount that is not payable in the next 12 months is long term liability.

Long Term Liability = $1,680,000 Total Payable Amount - $420,000 Current Liability

Long Term Liability = $1,260,000

7 0
3 years ago
Oriole Co. uses the gross method to record sales made on credit. On July 1, 2020, it made sales of 56,000 with terms 2/10 n/30.
Leokris [45]

Answer:

July 1, 2020

Dr. Account Receivable $56,000

Cr. Sales                          $56,000

July 9, 2020

Dr. Cash                          $54,880

Dr. Sales Discount          $1,120

Cr. Account Receivable $56,000

Explanation:

Credit terms of 2/10, n/30 means there is a discount of 2% is available on payment of due amount within discount period of 10 days after sale with net credit period of 30 days.

As Payment of $56,000 is received within the discount period. So, the discount will be

Discount = $56,000  x 2% = $1,120

Amount Paid = $56,000 - $1,120 = $54,880

8 0
3 years ago
Big Canyon Enterprises has bonds on the market making annual payments, with 18 years to maturity, a par value of $1,000, and a p
AnnyKZ [126]

Answer:

The correct answer is 8.679%.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:

Face value (F) = $1,000

Bond value (B)= $955

Time (t) = 18 years

Yield (r) = 9.2%

First we calculate the coupon payment:

Let coupon payment = C

then,

B = C × \frac{1 - \frac{1}{(1+r)^{t} } }{r}  + \frac{F}{(1+r)^{t} }

By putting the value, we get

$955 = C× \frac{1 - \frac{1}{(1+0.092)^{18} } }{0.092}  + \frac{1000}{(1+0.092)^{18} }

$955 = C × 8.64 + 205.11

C = 86.79

So, Coupon Rate = Coupon Payment ÷ Face value

= 86.79 ÷ 1000

= 0.08679

= 8.679%

8 0
3 years ago
A U.S. firm holds an asset in Great Britain and faces the following scenario:
Lady_Fox [76]

Answer:

C) Sell £2,278.13 forward at the 1-year forward rate, F1($/£), that prevails at time zero.

Explanation:

given data

                     State 1           State 2               State 3

Probability      25%            50%                      25%

Spot rate      $ 2.50 /£    $ 2.00 /£            $ 1.60 /£

P*                   £ 1,800       £ 2,250             £ 2,812.50

P                     $4,500          $4,500               $4,500

solution

company holds portfolio in pound. so to get hedge, they will sell that of the same amount.

we get here average value of the portfolio that is

The average value of the portfolio = £ (0.25*1800 + 0.5*2250 + 0.25*2812.5)

The average value of the portfolio = 2278.13

so correct option is C) Sell £2,278.13 forward at the 1-year forward rate, F1($/£), that prevails at time zero.

3 0
4 years ago
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