First you have to multiply 6*1=6 and 6*4=24 that would equal 246
next, you have to add a zero and multiply 1*1=1 and 1*4=4 that would come out to 410.
then you add 246+410. the answer to this equation would be the answer to the whole problem.
Answer:
u= -8/17 [-8, ∞)
Step-by-step explanation:
solve it like regular equation
17u≥-8
divide 17 on both side
then you get u≥-8/17
so, (u) is any value greater than or equal to -8/17
less than equal means solid dot on number line i think its called also mean ([) meaning it includes this value too. It is a multiplication so it can be any number above -8 or -8 itself. Thus, the interval notation will be [-8, ∞). Infinite is not a fix number so we use this (). hope this helps good luck
Answer:
a) We conclude that the menager use the hypergeometric distribution.
b) We conclude that the menager use the binomial distribution.
Step-by-step explanation:
a) We know that in probability theory, the hypergeometric distribution is a discrete probability distribution that describes the probability of k successes in n draws, without replacement.
We conclude that the menager use the hypergeometric distribution.
b) We know that the binomial distribution describes the probability of k successes in n draws with replacement.
We conclude that the menager use the binomial distribution.
Answer:
26.88
Step-by-step explanation:
20%*22.40=4.48
22.40+4.48=26.88
Answer:
576
Step-by-step explanation:
First off, we can use the area of a kite formula, (D1*D2)/2 to get the area of one side of the kite, which is simplified to 18 * 32 : which gets us 288. But because we are looking for the area of the front and back side, we multiply 288 by 2- getting the final answer of <u>576</u>.
