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nlexa [21]
3 years ago
10

ANSWER THIS ASAP PLS SHOW WORK ☹☹☹

Mathematics
1 answer:
Sliva [168]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

Square 63 is, 7.93725393319

Step-by-step explanation:

I will do more later be patient :)

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I need help! Please! Geometry! I don't know what I'm doing! ​
Ber [7]
Hi! collinear means on the same line, while coplanar means on the same plane! here’s what i got for these questions:

2 - false

4 - i’m not too sure on this one, but i believe it’s true!

6 - false

7 - true

try to check the answers and make sure they’re true before submitting! hope this helped!:)
8 0
3 years ago
What is the distance around a triangle that has sides measuring 2 1/8, 3 1/2, and 2 1/2 feet?
Mashcka [7]
Perimeter = 2 1/8 + 3 1/2 + 2 1/2 = 7 (1 + 4 + 4)/8 = 7 9/8 = 8 1/8
3 0
3 years ago
Given the two functions, which statement is true?
tia_tia [17]

Answer:

Option D

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x) = \text{log}_{15}x

Transformed form of the function 'f' is 'g'.

g(x) = \frac{1}{2}\text{log}_{15}(x+4)

Property of vertical stretch or compression of a function,

k(x) = x

Transformed function → m(x) = kx

Here, k = scale factor

1). If k > 1, function is vertically stretched.

2). If 0 < k < 1, function is vertically compressed.

From the given functions, k = \frac{1}{2}

Since, k is between 0 and \frac{1}{2}, function f(x) is vertically compressed by a scale factor \frac{1}{2}.

g(x) = f(x + 4) represents a shift of function 'f' by 4 units left.

g(x) = f(x - 4) represents a shift of function 'f' by 4 units right.

g(x) = \frac{1}{2}\text{log}_{15}(x+4)

Therefore, function f(x) has been shifted by 4 units left to form image function g(x).

Option D is the answer.

8 0
3 years ago
Plz help plzplzplzplz
lina2011 [118]

Answer:

Manager will get $40

Step-by-step explanation:

2400*(1/12)=200, so Dylan made $200

200*(1/5)=40, so the manager made $40

3 0
4 years ago
At the malt shop a large chocolate shake takes 8/9 of a pint of milk.If the medium shake takes 1/7 the amount of the large how m
omeli [17]
There are several information's of immense importance in the problem. Based on these information's the answer to the question can be easily reached. The only thing that has to be kept in mind is the calculation part, otherwise it is a simple problem.
Now it is given that:
A large chocolate shake takes 8/9 of a pint of milk.
Then
Amount of milk required to make medium shake = (8/9) * (1/7) of a pint
                                                                              = 8/63 of a pint
Then it can be said that for making a medium chocolate shake , 8/63 of a pint of milk is required. This is the simplest form of the fraction and it cannot be expressed as a mixed number since the denominator is higher than the numerator.
8 0
3 years ago
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