Ask question

Ask question

All categories

3 years ago

13

Mel took out a loan of $40,000 at 14 percent on March 16, 2015 which will be due on January 9, 2016. Using exact interest the am

ount of Mel's interest cost is:

1 answer:

QveST [7]3 years ago

3 0

Answer:

the interest cost is $4,679.45

Step-by-step explanation:

The computation of the interest cost is shown below:

= Loan amount × rate of interest × given no of days ÷ total no of days in a year

= $40,000 × 14% × 305 days ÷ 365 days

= $4,679.45

hence, the interest cost is $4,679.45

You might be interested in

Find BC, please i need help!!

Trava [24]

İf you have anything that not Clear,respond me

5 0

3 years ago

(-1 + 6) Squared + (4+5) squared

nalin [4]

(-1 + 6)^2 <span>+ (4+5)^2 = </span>106

3 0

3 years ago

Whats 1,234 in word form

yaroslaw [1]

1,234

One thousand
Two hundred
Thirty four

8 0

3 years ago

You have a large jar that initially contains 30 red marbles and 20 blue marbles. We also have a large supply of extra marbles of

Dima020 [189]

Answer:

There is a 57.68% probability that this last marble is red.

There is a 20.78% probability that we actually drew the same marble all four times.

Step-by-step explanation:

Initially, there are 50 marbles, of which:

30 are red

20 are blue

Any time a red marble is drawn:

The marble is placed back, and another three red marbles are added

Any time a blue marble is drawn

The marble is placed back, and another five blue marbles are added.

The first three marbles can have the following combinations:

R - R - R

R - R - B

R - B - R

R - B - B

B - R - R

B - R - B

B - B - R

B - B - B

Now, for each case, we have to find the probability that the last marble is red. So

$P = P_{1} + P_{2} + P_{3} + P_{4} + P_{5} + P_{6} + P_{7} + P_{8}$

$P_{1}$ is the probability that we go R - R - R - R

There are 50 marbles, of which 30 are red. So, the probability of the first marble sorted being red is $\frac{30}{50} = \frac{3}{5}$ .

Now the red marble is returned to the bag, and another 3 red marbles are added.

Now there are 53 marbles, of which 33 are red. So, when the first marble sorted is red, the probability that the second is also red is $\frac{33}{53}$

Again, the red marble is returned to the bag, and another 3 red marbles are added

Now there are 56 marbles, of which 36 are red. So, in this sequence, the probability of the third marble sorted being red is $\frac{36}{56}$

Again, the red marble sorted is returned, and another 3 are added.

Now there are 59 marbles, of which 39 are red. So, in this sequence, the probability of the fourth marble sorted being red is $\frac{39}{59}$ . So

$P_{1} = \frac{3}{5}*\frac{33}{53}*\frac{36}{56}*\frac{39}{59} = \frac{138996}{875560} = 0.1588$

$P_{2}$ is the probability that we go R - R - B - R

$P_{2} = \frac{3}{5}*\frac{33}{53}*\frac{20}{56}*\frac{36}{61} = \frac{71280}{905240} = 0.0788$

$P_{3}$ is the probability that we go R - B - R - R

$P_{3} = \frac{3}{5}*\frac{20}{53}*\frac{33}{58}*\frac{36}{61} = \frac{71280}{937570} = 0.076$

$P_{4}$ is the probability that we go R - B - B - R

$P_{4} = \frac{3}{5}*\frac{20}{53}*\frac{25}{58}*\frac{33}{63} = \frac{49500}{968310} = 0.0511$

$P_{5}$ is the probability that we go B - R - R - R

$P_{5} = \frac{2}{5}*\frac{30}{55}*\frac{33}{58}*\frac{36}{61} = \frac{71280}{972950} = 0.0733$

$P_{6}$ is the probability that we go B - R - B - R

$P_{6} = \frac{2}{5}*\frac{30}{55}*\frac{25}{58}*\frac{33}{63} = \frac{49500}{1004850} = 0.0493$

$P_{7}$ is the probability that we go B - B - R - R

$P_{7} = \frac{2}{5}*\frac{25}{55}*\frac{1}{2}*\frac{33}{63} = \frac{825}{17325} = 0.0476$

$P_{8}$ is the probability that we go B - B - B - R

$P_{8} = \frac{2}{5}*\frac{25}{55}*\frac{1}{2}*\frac{30}{65} = \frac{750}{17875} = 0.0419$

So, the probability that this last marble is red is:

$P = P_{1} + P_{2} + P_{3} + P_{4} + P_{5} + P_{6} + P_{7} + P_{8} = 0.1588 + 0.0788 + 0.076 + 0.0511 + 0.0733 + 0.0493 + 0.0476 + 0.0419 = 0.5768$

There is a 57.68% probability that this last marble is red.

What's the probability that we actually drew the same marble all four times?

$P = P_{1} + P_{2}$

$P_{1}$ is the probability that we go R-R-R-R. It is the same $P_{1}$ from the previous item(the last marble being red). So $P_{1} = 0.1588$

$P_{2}$ is the probability that we go B-B-B-B. It is almost the same as $P_{8}$ in the previous exercise. The lone difference is that for the last marble we want it to be blue. There are 65 marbles, 35 of which are blue.

$P_{2} = \frac{2}{5}*\frac{25}{55}*\frac{1}{2}*\frac{35}{65} = \frac{875}{17875} = 0.0490$

$P = P_{1} + P_{2} = 0.1588 + 0.0490 = 0.2078$

There is a 20.78% probability that we actually drew the same marble all four times

3 0

3 years ago

What is the value of w?

sergeinik [125]

Answer: Most likely, the value of w is 5 units.

Step-by-step explanation: P = 2L + 2w

If the perimeter is 28, the side lengths must be less than 14, otherwise there is no width, just two lines on top of one another.

If the width is 7, then all four sides would be 7 units, and <u>that would create a square</u>-- which is a type of rectangle-- but probably not what this question is about.

A width of 5 units makes sense, 2w would be 10, leaving 28-10 = 18 to be divided by 2 for lengths of 9

The rectangle would have a width of 5 units and a length of 9 units.

7 0

3 years ago