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makkiz [27]
2 years ago
7

Why were poorer citizens excluded from voting until the 1820s?

History
1 answer:
Papessa [141]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

it was believed that they didn't have the education or experience to vote wisely

Explanation:

Prior to the 1820's a requirement of the United States constitution was that citizens were to have property qualifications before they could vote. They were to own a property in the United States and regularly pay their taxes before they could vote. Apparently, poor citizens could not meet these qualifications. They also were neither educated nor experienced to vote.

By the 1820's many states dropped the requirement to own properties before voting and this resulted in more participation in voting.

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