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Otrada [13]
3 years ago
9

Given 8x² + 6x = -5

Mathematics
1 answer:
qwelly [4]3 years ago
3 0
So you are to multiply 8 by 8 then add the 6+5 =?x I think that’s how you do it I’m not sure though
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The area of Mark's laptop computer
navik [9.2K]

Answer:

4x+1

Step-by-step explanation:

The area is 12x2 + 3x in

The length is 3x

Formula is A=L*B

12x2 + 3x=3x*B

Divide both side by 3x

12x2+3x divide by 3x=B

4x+1=B

The express for the width is 4x+1

Please mark as brainliest

7 0
3 years ago
Solve for X<br> 1. -5 = x - (-6)<br> 2. - 30=1.25x<br> 3. -6x=72<br> 4. -4.9=0.7x<br> 5. 3.15=0.45x
Hoochie [10]

Answer: 1. -11=x 2. 24=x 3. x=-12 4. -7 5. x=7


Step-by-step explanation: The answer to first one can be calculated by seeing the - as a -1.

-5 = x - (-6)

-5=x+6

Then subtract 6 from both sides.

-5=x+6

-11=x

The answer to the second can be found simply by dividing both sides by 1.25.

- 30=1.25x

-30/1.25=1.25x/1.25

24=x

The third one can be solved by as we said before dividing both sides by -6.

-6x=72

-6x/-6=72/-6

x=-12

The fourth one can be found again by using division on both sides.

-4.9=0.7x

-4.9/0.7=0.7x/0.7

-7=x

Finally we solve the last one by again doing the same thing dividing both sides by 0.45.

3.15=0.45x

3.15/0.45=0.45x/0.45

7=x

Hope this helps!

3 0
4 years ago
You collect baseball cards and buy sealed packs from the grocery store and clearly have no idea which cards are inside (nor if t
ololo11 [35]

Answer:

(a) 0.9607

(c) 0.04

(d) 0.8184

(e) 0.074

(f) 0.0853/e^0.8;

750 cards

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the probability of success of a valuable card be p

p= 1/250 = 0.004,

q = 1-p = (249/250)

(a) There are 10 cards in one pack

The probability that there are no valuable card is given by:

Pr(X= 0) = 10C0 × (1/250)^0 ×(249/250)^10

10C0 = 10 combination 0= 10!/10!0!

=1

Pr (X= 0) = (249/250)^10

Pr (X=0) = 0.9607

(c) Expected number of valuable card is given by:

E(X) = np , n= 10, p= 1/250

E(X) = 10 × 1/250 = 1/25 = 0.04

(d) 5 packages means 5 × 10= 50 cards

Pr(X=0) = 50C0 × (1/250)^0 ×(249/250)^50

50C0 = 50!/50! ×0!=1

Pr (X=0) = (249/250)^50

Pr (X= 0) =(0.996)^50

Pr (X=0) = 0.8184

(e) For this case we use the Binomial Distribution

2 packages 2 × 10 = 20 cards

n = 20 , x = 1

We use:

P(X=1) = 20C1 × (1/250)^ 1 × (249/250)^19

Pr (X=1) = 20C1 × (1/250)^1 × (249/250)^19

Pr (X=1) = 20 × (1/250)¹ × (249/250)^19

Pr (X= 1 )= 0.074

(f) 20 packages = 200 cards

For this we apply Poisson distribution

P(X=3) = (e ^-h × h ^x) / x!

Where h = np = 200/250 = 0.8

P(X=3) = e^-0.8 × (0.8)^3 / 3!

P(X=3) = 0.991 × 0.512/6

P(X=3) = 0.0846

3 = n p

n = 3/p = 3 /0.04

n = 750 cards

8 0
4 years ago
In which figure is line DE parallel to line BC?
anzhelika [568]
Answer: D. Figure 4
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
I need help please?!!!!):
notsponge [240]

Answer:

k=38

Step-by-step explanation:

add 22 to itself to cancel it out and add it to the 16 as well and you will get k

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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