Step-by-step explanation: Step 1. Flip the equation Step 2. Add the number to both sides Step 3. Divide both sides by the number to get your answer.

1. v=10 2. m=7 3. r=-9 4. k=9 5. r=0 6. x=10 7. x=6 8. 9=3 9. m=-10 10. n=-10

11.p=0

12.x=10

13.b=4

14.n=0

15.p=2

16.x=8

17.m=8

18.x=3

19.n=-1

20.n=9

4 0

3 years ago

Which number is a solution of a² +4= 6a – 1?<br> 07<br> 6<br> 7<br> 8

LuckyWell [14K]

Answer:

a=1 or a=5

Step-by-step explanation:

$a^{2}$ +4=6a−1

Step 1: Subtract 6a-1 from both sides.

$a^{2}$ +4−(6a−1)=6a−1−(6a−1)

$a^{2}$ −6a+5=0

Step 2: Factor left side of equation.

(a−1)(a−5)=0

Step 3: Set factors equal to 0.

a−1=0 or a−5=0

a=1 or a=5

(is it helpful rate me according to that

Thank You:-)

6 0

3 years ago

A line includes the points (1, 9) and (0, 5). What is it’s equation in the slope-intercept form?

scoundrel [369]

Equation is y = 4x + 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Find the slope of the line by m = (y2 - y1)/(x2 - x1). Here y2 = 5, y1 = 9, x1 = 1 and x2 = 0

⇒ m = (5 - 9)/(0 - 1) = 4

Step 2: Find y-intercept, b. Since the line passes through (0, 5) b = 5
Step 3: Write the equation in slope-intercept form

⇒ y = 4x + 5

5 0

4 years ago

In 1990, California switched from a 6/49 lottery to a 6/53 lottery. Later, the state switched again to a 6/51 lottery. (a) Find

zalisa [80]

Answer:

(a) 9.9321*10^{-11}

(b) 6.0498*10^{-11}

(d) 1.6417 times more probable

Step-by-step explanation:

(a) The probability of winning a 6/49 lottery is given by:

$P = \frac{1}{49*48*47*46*45*44} =9.9321*10^{-11}$

(b) The probability of winning a 6/53 lottery is given by:

$P = \frac{1}{53*52*51*50*49*48} =6.0498*10^{-11}$

(c) The probability of winning a 6/51 lottery is given by:

$P = \frac{1}{51*50*49*48*47*46} =7.7120^{-11}$

(d) The ratio between the probabilities of winning the 6/49 lottery and winning the 6/53 lottery is:

$r=\frac{9.9321*10^{-11}}{6.0498^{-11}}\\r=1.6417$

It is 1.6417 times more probable.

8 0

4 years ago