Answer
N/A
Step-by-step explanation:
lets take a step into our imaginations, ok?
So when you divide, you're basically splitting the numerator into as many parts as the denominator.
imagine you have a chocolate bar, and it has 6 pieces and you want to split it evenly between your 3 friends.
you split it into three equal parts to get 2 pieces per person.
When you divide 0 by 0, your splitting 0 chocolate bars into 0 equal portions, which is why this problem isn't solvable.
The probability that the person pulls 1 blue M&M given that one is only allowed to pull 5 random M&M's per day will be 0.6450.
<h3>How to calculate probability?</h3>
From the information given, there are 1,023 M&M's in a bag and out of 1,023 M&M's, 132 M&M's are blue.
Therefore, the probability of getting a blue M&M will be:
= 132/1023
= 0.1290
Therefore, since the person is given the chance to pull 5 random M&M's per day, the probability will be:
= 0.1290 × 5
= 0.6450
Learn more about probability on:
brainly.com/question/24756209
#SPJ1
<h3>
Answer: 72.54</h3>
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Explanation:
We set up a cosine ratio, since we want to connect the adjacent and hypotenuse. Then we'll use the inverse cosine, which is also known as arccosine, to isolate the angle value.
This is what your steps could look like:
cos(angle) = adjacent/hypotenuse
cos(L) = LM/LN
cos(L) = 18/60
cos(L) = 0.3
L = arccos(0.3)
L = 72.542396876278 which is approximate
L = 72.54 degrees approximately
Make sure your calculator is in degree mode.
