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anyanavicka [17]
2 years ago
9

The Campbell Company is considering adding a robotic paint sprayer to its production line. The sprayer's base price is $940,000,

and it would cost another $25,000 to install it. The machine falls into the MACRS 3-year class, and it would be sold after 3 years for $624,000. The MACRS rates for the first three years are 0.3333, 0.4445, and 0.1481. The machine would require an increase in net working capital (inventory) of $19,000. The sprayer would not change revenues, but it is expected to save the firm $301,000 per year in before-tax operating costs, mainly labor. Campbell's marginal tax rate is 25%.
Required:
a. What is the Year 0 net cash flow?
b. What are the net operating cash flows in Years 1, 2, 3?
c. What is the additional Year 3- cash flow (i.e. after tax salvage and the return of working capital)?
d. If the project's cost of capital is 12%, should the machine be purchased
Business
1 answer:
Tanya [424]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

a. Year 0 Net Cash Flows = $984,000

b. We have:

Year 1 net operating cash flows = $306,159

Year 2 net operating cash flows = $332,986

Year 3 net operating cash flows = $261,479

c. Additional Year 3- cash flow = $504,877

d. The machine should be purchased.

Explanation:

We start by first calculating the following:

Initial Investment = Base Price + Modification Cost = $940,000 + $25,000 = $965,000

Useful Life = 3 years

Depreciation in Year 1 = 0.3333 * $965,000 = $321,634.50

Depreciation in Year 2 = 0.4445 * $965,000 = $428,942.50

Depreciation in Year 3 = 0.1481 * $965,000 = $142,916.50

Book Value at the end of Year 3 = $965,000 - $321,634.50 - $428,942.50 - $142,916.50 = $71,506.50

After-tax Salvage Value = Salvage Value - (Salvage Value - Book Value) * Marginal tax rate = $624,000 – ($624,000 - $71,506.50) * 25% = $485,877

Initial Investment in NWC = $19,000

We can now proceed as follows:

a. What is the Year 0 net cash flow?

Year 0 Net Cash Flows = Initial Investment + Initial Investment in NWC = $965,000 + $19,000 = $984,000

b. What are the net operating cash flows in Years 1, 2, 3?

Year 1 net operating cash flows = (Pretax Cost Saving * (1 - tax)) + (tax * Depreciation in year 1) = ($301,000 * (1 – 0.25)) + (0.25 * $321,634.50) = $306,159

Year 2 net operating cash flows = (Pretax Cost Saving * (1 - tax)) + (tax * Depreciation in year 2) = ($301,000 * (1 – 0.25)) + (0.25 * $428,942.50) = $332,986

Year 3 net operating cash flows = (Pretax Cost Saving * (1 - tax)) + (tax * Depreciation in year 3) = ($301,000 * (1 – 0.25)) + (0.25 * $142,916.50) = $261,479

c. What is the additional Year 3- cash flow (i.e. after tax salvage and the return of working capital)?

Additional Year 3- cash flow = NWC recovered + After-tax Salvage Value = $19,000 + $485,877 = $504,877

d. If the project's cost of capital is 12%, should the machine be purchased?

This can be determined from the net present value (NPV) calculated as follows:

NPV = -$984,000 + ($306,159/1.12^1) + ($332,986/1.12^2) + ($261,479/1.12^3) + ($504,877/1.12^3) = $100,287.71

Since the NPV of the machine of $100,287.71 is positive, the machine should be purchased.

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What are the 8 Consumer Rights
Alinara [238K]
The right to satisfaction of basic needs
The right to safety
The right to be informed
The right to choose
The right to be heard
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The right to consumer education
The right to a healthy and sustainable environment

There are your 8. :)
6 0
3 years ago
Sand, Inc. has outstanding $5,000,000, 10%, 20-year bonds. The bonds are callable at 104 on any interest date. The bonds were is
Ray Of Light [21]

Answer: B) A loss of $200,000 on its income statement in the year the bonds are called.

Explanation:

The bonds were issued at Par. This means they were issued at 100 of par.

The bonds are now trading at 104 of par.

If Sand Inc calls the bonds then they will make a profit (loss) of,

= 5,000,000 * 104/100

= $5,200,000

Therefore their Profit (loss) will be the bond at par minus the Calling price

= 5,000,000 - 5,200,000

= -$200,000

That means they make a loss of $200,000 in the year the bonds are called.

If you need any clarification do react or comment.

6 0
3 years ago
Pacific Packaging's ROE last year was only 6%; but its management has developed a new operating plan that calls for a debt-to-ca
Firdavs [7]

Answer:

13.75%

Explanation:

Calculation for what will be the company's return on equity

First step

Asset Turnover Ratio= Net Sales / Total Assets ------(1)

Given Asset Turnover Ratio =2.7

=> 2.7 = 4,000,000/ Total Assets (from equation 1)

=>Total Assets = 1,481,481 ------(2)

Second step

ROE = Net Income / Equity

Net Income = (EBIT - Interest Charges) *(1-tax rate)

Net Income = (356,000 -168,000) *(1-35%)

Net Income = $122,200 --------(3)

Equity = Total Assets *(1-debt ratio)

Equity = 1,481,481*(1-0.4) = $888,889 --------(4)

From equation 3 and 4

ROE = Net Income / Equity

ROE= 122,200/888,889

ROE =0.1375*100

ROE=13.75%

Therefore ROE will be 13.75%

5 0
2 years ago
Which of the following are characteristics of a perpetuity?
QveST [7]

Answer:

B. The value of a perpetuity is equal to the sum of the present value of its expected future cash flows.

C. The current value of a perpetuity is based more on the discounted value of its nearer (in time) cash flows and less by the discounted value of its more distant (in the future) cash flows.

Explanation:

A Perpetuity is a financial instrument that pays the holder forever or in perpetuity. For example, a bank paying you $800 per year for ever because you invested $40,000.

There are certain characteristics

Option B

The Perpetuity like most financial Securities has its value based on the underlying cashflows that it can accumulate. This means that it's value is based on the present value of it's future cashflow so the other the cash payments, the higher the present value.

Option C.

As the discounted cashflows in the nearer future will be discounted less by the discount rate as opposed to the cash flows further in future, the cashflows nearer to the present in time will contribute more to the Perpetuity than the cashflows further in time.

For example using that first example, $800 per year at a rate of 5% will be discounted to $762 in the first year but in year 10 will be discounted to $491.

7 0
3 years ago
The risk-free rate is 5% and the tangency portfolio has 20% expected return and 40% return standard deviation. A risk-loving inv
marissa [1.9K]

Answer:

B. 500

Explanation:

Portfolio return =  Weighted average return

Let the amount invested in portfolio is x and amount invested in risk free = 1000 - x

27.5% = 20%*x + 5%*(1000-x)

27.5% * 1,000 = 20%x + 50 – 5%x

0.275 * 1,000 = 15%x + 50

275 - 50 = 15%x

225 = 15%x

x = 225 / 0.15

x  =  $1,500

Hence, the amount of money borrowed = $1,500 - $1000

= $500

6 0
3 years ago
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