3 years ago

How much money would be $0.10 for every dollar of $400.00 be?

Mathematics

1 answer:

faltersainse [42]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

$40

Step-by-step explanation:

400x0.10=40

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Splitting up the interval [0, 6] into 6 subintervals means we have

$[0,1]\cup[1,2]\cup[2,3]\cup\cdots\cup[5,6]$

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So the integral is approximately

$\displaystyle\int_0^6x^2\,\mathrm dx\approx\sum_{i=0}^5({x_i}^*)^2\Delta x_i=\frac{6-0}6\sum_{i=0}^5({x_i}^*)^2=\sum_{i=0}^5\left(\frac{2i+1}2\right)^2$

Recall that

$\displaystyle\sum_{i=1}^ni^2=\frac{n(n+1)(2n+1)}6$
$\displaystyle\sum_{i=1}^ni=\frac{n(n+1)}2$
$\displaystyle\sum_{i=1}^n1=n$

so our sum becomes

$\displaystyle\sum_{i=0}^5\left(\frac{2i+1}2\right)^2=\sum_{i=0}^5\left(i^2+i+\frac14\right)$
$=\displaystyle\frac{5(6)(11)}6+\frac{5(6)}2+\frac54=\frac{143}2$

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What is 15456415 times 45415

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