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marissa [1.9K]
3 years ago
14

If a household's income rises from $46,000 to $48,000 and its consumption spending rises from $38,00 to $39,500 then the MPC is

Business
1 answer:
bulgar [2K]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

0.5

Explanation:

marginal propensity to consume Can be regarded as the increase in pay that is been consumer experience on the purchasing of products which is just a part at aggregate. Instead of consumer to save

We are told that income rises from $46,000 to $48,000.

The difference= $48,000-$46,000= $2000

✓consumption spending rises from $38,00 to $39,500

The difference= $39,500-$38,00= $1000

Then the marginal propensity to consume can calculated as ratio of the difference in consumption spending to income rise

=1000/2000=0.5

Therefore, the MPC is 0.5

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Suppose that the inverse demand equation is p​ = 100 minus 2Q and the supply equation is p​ = 2Q. If the price is controlled at
Irina18 [472]

Answer: P =$50

Q= 25

Explanation: P= 100-2Q

P= 2Q

To get the quantity supplied Q, we have to educate both equations

100-2Q=2Q, 100=2Q+2Q

100=4Q, Q=100/4 , Q=25

To get the equilibrium price we have to substitute the value of Q which is 25 into any of the equation.

Using equation 1

P=100-2Q, P=100-2(25)

P=100-50, P=$50.

If the price is controlled at $60, then the production pays the producer this is because a commodity is not expected to be sold at the equilibrium price, price flooring is a way that government or a group control the market price of a commodity or produce by imposing a particular price on it. This is to ensure that the producers are not at loss with their production, a price floor is always higher than the equilibrium price to be effective as seen in the example given above, price floor is $60 while equilibrium price is $50.

An example of a price floor for services can be seen in the minimum wage stated by the government this is to ensure that people's services are not misused anyhow.

Price flooring most times can lead to surplus quantity produced if consumers are not willing to pay the price, because the producer will be wiling to produce more in order to make more profit.

4 0
3 years ago
Generally, the payment of an accelerated death benefit is _______ to a recipient if the benefit payment is qualified.
IrinaK [193]

The correct answer is Tax free.

An Accelerated Death Benefit (ADB) enables the holder of a life insurance policy to obtain a portion of the death benefit from the insurer before passing away. The policyholder must typically have a terminal illness with a life expectancy of two years or fewer.

<h3>How are benefits for hastened death paid?</h3>

A lump amount may be provided as part of some hastened death benefits. With a benefit for a terminal disease, this happens more frequently. Payments for chronic illnesses are more frequently made. According to Schelhaas, some accelerated death benefit riders are simple because they pay a specific portion of the death benefit.

To know more about Insurance , visit: brainly.com/question/27822778

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1 year ago
What is the smallest level at which life may exist
DerKrebs [107]
CELL is the smallest level.........
6 0
3 years ago
Assume that your firm consists of Division 1 (40 percent of the firm) and Division 2 (60 percent of the firm). The capital struc
tresset_1 [31]

Answer:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

Explanation:

Before starting, we need to convert unlevered beta into levered beta:

Levered beta of Division 1: 1.2 x ( 1 + (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.38

Leverage beta of Division 2: 1.46 x ( 1+ (1-40%) x 0.25) = 1.679

Then, we start step by step as below:

First, using the CAPM model: Cost of equity = risk-free rate of return +  beta *(Market Rate of Return – Risk-free Rate of Return) , we find the cost of equity for Division 1 and Division 2.

  - Division 1's cost of Equity = 4% + 1.38 x( 12% -4%) = 15.04%

  - Division 2's cost of equity = 4% + 1.46 x (12% - 4%) = 17.432%

Second, determine the post-tax cost of debt applied for both Division: 6% x (1-tax rate) = 6% x (1 -40%) = 3.60%

Third, calculate the WACC for each Division:

  - Division 1's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 15.04% = 11.752%;

  - Division 2's WACC = % of debt in capital structure x cost of debt + % of equity in capital structure x cost of equity = 20% x 3.6% + 80% x 17.432% = 14.6656%;

Finally, compare the WACC between the two Division:

Division 1's WACC - Division 2's WACC = 11.752% - 14.6656% = - 1.9136% or Division 1 has the lower cost of capital of 1.9136% in absolute term comparing to Division 2.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Would loaning a friend $10 to buy a movie ticket be an investment? Why or why not
Luden [163]

Answer:

no

Explanation:

An investment is an asset or item that is purchased with the hope that it will generate income or appreciate in the future.

3 0
3 years ago
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