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Lena [83]
2 years ago
9

ThingOne Company has the following information available for the past year. They use machine hours to allocate overhead. Actual

total overhead$80,510 Actual fixed overhead$32,000 Actual machine hours11,000 Standard hours for the units produced10,600 Standard variable overhead rate$4.60 What is the variable overhead efficiency variance
Business
1 answer:
frozen [14]2 years ago
7 0

Answer:

the variable overhead efficiency variance is $1,840 unfavorable

Explanation:

The computation of the variable overhead efficiency variance is shown below:

= Standard variable overhead rate × (standard hours - actual hours)

= $4.60 × (10,600 - 11,000)

= $1,840 unfavorable

Hence, the variable overhead efficiency variance is $1,840 unfavorable

As the standard hours would be less than the actual hours so it would be unfavorable variance

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2 - Confidentiality  is your answer
4 0
2 years ago
Most fraud investigators utilize the fraud triangle theory. A new theory called the fraud diamond has been proposed. Which of th
Sonja [21]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": Capability.

Explanation:

American criminologist Donald Cressey (1919-1987) proposed the Fraud Triangle Theory to explain the factor leading to such actions. According to Cressey, those components are <em>Pressure, Opportunity, </em>and <em>Rationalization.</em>

David Wolfe and Dana R. Hermanson introduced in 2004 the Fraud Diamond Theory with the same purpose as Cressey but they considered there are four (4) factors influencing individuals to commit fraud: <em>Pressure, Opportunity, Rationalization, </em>and <em>Capability.</em>

Thus, <em>the Diamond Theory includes the capability factor compared to the Triangle Theory that does not.</em>

7 0
3 years ago
You own factory A and factory B. The next cash flow for each factory is expected in 1 year. Factory A has a cost of capital of 3
ziro4ka [17]

Answer: See Explanation

Explanation:

First, we have to calculate the worth of factory A which will be:

= Cash flow / Cost of capital

= $19300 / 3.5%

= $19300 / 0.035

= $551428.57

= $551429

Cost of capital of Factory B = Cash flow / Worth

= $19,900 / $545,000

= 0.0365

= 3.65%

Cost of capital of Factory A = 3.5%

Cost of capital of Factory B = 3.65%

Worth of factory A = $551429

Worth of Factory B = $545,000

Therefore, factory A is more valuable than Factory B and Factory B is more risky than Factory A.

6 0
2 years ago
Spin Cycle Architecture uses three activity pools to apply overhead to its projects. Each activity has a cost driver used to all
hammer [34]

Answer:

a. predetermined overhead rate for each activity

initial concept formation  = $3,310 per Project Change

design  = $3 per Square feet

construction oversight  = $1,130 per Month

b. Classification

unit-level activities :

design

batch level activities :

initial concept formation

Product level activities :

design<em> </em>

Facility level activities :

initial concept formation

construction oversight

Explanation:

This question requires application of Activity Based Costing (ABC) method of allocating overheads.

For each overhead a rate is determined as follows :

<em>initial concept formation </em>

Predetermined overhead rate = Overhead Cost / Number of Project Changes

                                                  = $52,960/ 16

                                                  = $3,310 per Project Change

<em>design </em>

Predetermined overhead rate = Overhead Cost / Square feet

                                                  = $420,000/ 140,000

                                                  = $3 per Square feet

<em>construction oversight </em>

Predetermined overhead rate = Overhead Cost / Number of Months

                                                  = $118,650/ 105

                                                  = $1,130 per Month

<em>Classification</em>

The way the activity is to be absorbed in costing determine its classification

5 0
2 years ago
On a timeline, a goal that will be achieved in __________ years will be to the right of one that will be achieved in __________
kari74 [83]

Answer: D. 14;10

Explanation: The answer is D. 14;10 because a date to the right on a number line is older. This means that the first number has to be larger than the second number, and only D has this.

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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